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RRB Pharmacist Solved Paper 2015 with Explanation

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Here are the multiple-choice questions (MCQs) from the RRB Pharmacist Exam Paper 2015, along with the correct answers and explanations:

Which of the following is not a bone in the human body?

(a) Sternum

(b) Humerus

(d) Tibia
Answer: (c) Pericardium
Explanation: The pericardium is a membrane that surrounds the heart, not a bone.

Rennin and lactase, the enzymes required to digest milk, disappear in the human body by the age of

(a) Two

(b) Three

(d) Eight
Answer: (a) Two
Explanation: These enzymes typically decrease in production after early childhood, which affects milk digestion.

Duodenum is situated

(a) At the uppermost part of the small intestine

(b) Near the lungs

(d) At the tail end of the intestine
Answer: (a) At the uppermost part of the small intestine
Explanation: The duodenum is the first section of the small intestine, where most chemical digestion occurs.

The heart is covered by a membrane called

(a) Epidermis

(b) Dermis

(d) Pericardium
Answer: (d) Pericardium
Explanation: The pericardium is the double-walled sac containing the heart and the roots of the major vessels.

About _______ of the total calcium present in the human body is in the blood

(a) 99%

(b) 70%

(d) 1%
Answer: (d) 1%
Explanation: While most calcium is stored in bones, a small percentage circulates in the blood.

Phenylketonuria is an example of an inborn error of metabolism. This refers to

(a) Hormonal overproduction

(b) Non-disjunction

(d) Inherited lack of an enzyme
Answer: (d) Inherited lack of an enzyme
Explanation: Phenylketonuria is caused by a deficiency of the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase.

As in the arms and legs, blood flows against gravity and is prevented from flowing back by

(a) The extremely low pressure of venous blood

(b) Valves

(d) The narrowing down of the lumen of veins by the contraction of the muscle layer comprising

their walls
Answer: (b) Valves
Explanation: Valves in veins prevent the backflow of blood, ensuring it moves toward the heart.

Identical twins arise when two

(a) Cells develop independently from the same zygote

(b) Gametes develop independently

(d) Ova develop independently
Answer: (a) Cells develop independently from the same zygote
Explanation: Identical twins form when a single zygote splits and develops into two embryos.

Element that is not found in blood is

(a) Iron

(b) Copper

(d) Magnesium
Answer: (c) Chromium
Explanation: Chromium is not a common component of blood, whereas iron and magnesium are.

Scratching eases itching because

(a) It kills germs

(b) It suppresses the production of enzymes which cause itching

(d) It stimulates certain nerves which direct the brain to increase the production of antihistaminic chemicals.
Answer: (d) It stimulates certain nerves which direct the brain to increase the production of antihistaminic chemicals.
Explanation: Scratching activates nerves that help reduce the sensation of itching.

The gland, which in relation to body size is largest at birth and then gradually shrinks after puberty, is

(a) Thyroid

(b) Pituitary

(d) Adrenal
Answer: (c) Thymus
Explanation: The thymus is large in children and decreases in size after puberty, playing a role in the immune system’s development.

A human sperm may contain?

(1) X-chromosome

(2) Y-chromosome

(3) XY-chromosome

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1,2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 2 (X-chromosome and Y-chromosome)
Explanation: A sperm cell carries either an X or Y chromosome, determining the sex of the offspring.

Which of the following is not a bone in the legs of the human body?

(a) Radius

(b) Tibia

(d) Fibula
Answer: (a) Radius
Explanation: The radius is a bone in the forearm, not in the legs. Bones in the leg include the femur, tibia, and fibula.

Bleeding from an artery is characterized by which of the following?

(1) Blood is red

(2) Blood is purple

(3) Bleeding is continuous

(4) Bleeding is intermittent

(a) 1 and3

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 4
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 (Blood is purple and continuous)
Explanation: Arterial bleeding tends to be rapid and continuous because arteries carry oxygen-rich blood under high pressure.

Which of the following is not a vestigial organ?

(a) Centriole

(b) Molar tooth

(d) Diaphragm
Answer: (d) Diaphragm
Explanation: The diaphragm is an essential muscle for respiration, not a vestigial organ.

Which of the following bone articulations forms the gliding joint?

(a) Humerus and radius

(b) Carpals

(d) Skull & neck verterbrae
Answer: (b) Carpals
Explanation: The bones of the wrist (carpals) form gliding joints, allowing limited movement in multiple directions.

Pancreas secretes hormones that help in

(a) Blood clotting

(b) Production of antibodies

(d) Keeping sugar balance in body
Answer: (d) Keeping sugar balance in the body
Explanation: The pancreas releases insulin and glucagon, which regulate blood sugar levels.

SA node of the mammalian heart is known as

(a) Autoregulator

(b) Pace-maker

(d) Beat regulator
Answer: (b) Pace-maker
Explanation: The SA node (Sinoatrial node) initiates the heartbeat and sets the pace for the heart rate.

Consider the following statements regarding blood pressure:

It is the pressure exerted by the blood on the walls of any vessel
It decreases in the arteries as the distance from the heart increases
It is lower in the capillaries than arteries
It is usually lower in women than in men.

Of these, the correct ones are

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 1 2and 3

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Explanation: All the given statements about blood pressure are true.

The hormone responsible for the secretion of milk in mothers is

(a) ACTH

(b) Luteinizing hormone

(d) Lactogenic hormone
Answer: (d) Lactogenic hormone
Explanation: The lactogenic hormone, also known as prolactin, stimulates milk production in the mammary glands.

What is the correct sequence of events in a heart attack?

[1] Narrowing of the inner orifice of the vessel

[2] Plaque from fibrous tissue and high cholesterol

[3] Inadequate supply of blood and oxygen

[4] Clots of blood carried into the coronary arteries

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4

(b) 2, 4, 1, 3

(d) 4, 2, 1, 3
Answer: (b) 2, 4, 1, 3 (Plaque from fibrous tissue and high cholesterol → Clots of blood carried into the coronary arteries → Narrowing of the inner orifice of the vessel → Inadequate supply of blood and oxygen)
Explanation: Plaque buildup and blood clots lead to narrowed vessels and insufficient oxygen supply, causing a heart attack.

Bile juice is secreted by

(a) Pancreas

(b) Liver

(d) Gallbladder
Answer: (b) Liver
Explanation: The liver produces bile, which helps in the digestion of fats.

Veins differ from arteries in having

(a) Thinner walls

(b) Strong walls

(d) Valves to control the direction of flow
Answer: (d) Valves to control the direction of flow
Explanation: Veins have valves to prevent the backflow of blood, which arteries do not need due to higher pressure.

What is the main function of insulin in the human body?

(a) To maintain blood pressure

(b) To help in digestion of food

(d) To check the level of iodine in the body
Answer: (c) To control the level of sugar in the body
Explanation: Insulin helps regulate blood glucose levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose into cells.

An enzyme that works in an acidic medium

(a) Pepsin

(b) Trypsin

(d) Maltose
Answer: (a) Pepsin
Explanation: Pepsin is a digestive enzyme that functions best in the acidic environment of the stomach.

The blood pressure is the pressure of blood in

(a) Arteries

(b) Veins

(d) Ventricles
Answer: (a) Arteries
Explanation: Blood pressure refers to the force exerted by circulating blood on the walls of the arteries.

The total number of bones in the human skull are

(a) 8

(b) 12

(d) 32
Answer: (a) 8
Explanation: The human skull consists of 8 cranial bones that protect the brain.

Which of the following glands controls the development of sex organs in humans?

(a) Pancreas

(b) Thyroid

(d) Pituitary
Answer: (d) Pituitary
Explanation: The pituitary gland releases hormones that influence the development of the reproductive organs.

Oxygen is transported to every cell of the human body by

(a) Red blood cells

(b) Blood platelets

(d) Hormones
Answer: (a) Red blood cells
Explanation: Red blood cells (RBCs) carry oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body using hemoglobin.

Which of the following components of blood protects human beings from infection?

(a) Plasma

(b) Blood Platelets

(d) White Blood Corpuscles
Answer: (d) White Blood Corpuscles
Explanation: White blood cells (WBCs) are part of the immune system and defend the body against infections.

The normal temperature of the human body is

(a) 90 F

(b) 98 F

(c). 98.4 F

(d) 96.4 F
Answer: (c) 98.4 F
Explanation: The normal body temperature for a healthy person is about 98.4 degrees Fahrenheit (37 degrees Celsius).

If a person can see an object clearly when it is placed at a distance of about 25 cm away from him, he is suffering from

(a) Myopia

(b) Hypermetropia

(d) None of these
Answer: (d) None of these
Explanation: This indicates normal vision since the average near point for a healthy person is around 25 cm.

The blood pressure values of four persons are given below:

Mrs. X – 90/60
Mr. X – 160/120
Mr. Y – 120/80
Mrs. Y – 140/100

Who among the following has normal blood pressure?

(a) Mrs. Y

(b) Mr. X

(d) Mrs. Y
Answer: (c) Mr. Y
Explanation: The normal blood pressure is considered to be around 120/80 mmHg, making Mr. Y’s values ideal.

In the case of a Test-tube baby

(a) Fertilisation takes place inside the test tube

(b) Development of the baby takes place inside the test tube

(d) Unfertilised egg develops inside the test tube
Answer: (c) Fertilisation takes place outside the mother’s body
Explanation: In vitro fertilization (IVF) involves the fusion of the egg and sperm outside the body, after which the embryo is implanted in the uterus.

The pituitary gland is present

(a) Below the brain

(b) Above the brain

(d) Now here near the brain
Answer: (a) Below the brain
Explanation: The pituitary gland, also known as the “master gland,” is located at the base of the brain.

Which of the following organs is used in the purification of blood in the human body?

(a) Liver

(b) Kidney

(d) Lungs
Answer: (b) Kidney
Explanation: The kidneys filter waste products and excess substances from the blood, purifying it.

Cornea is a part of which of the following organs of the human body?

(a) Eye

(b) Ear

(d) Heart
Answer: (a) Eye
Explanation: The cornea is the transparent front part of the eye that covers the iris and pupil.

What is the “Funny Bone”?

(a) A muscle

(b) A nerve

(d) A blood vessel
Answer: (b) A nerve
Explanation: The “funny bone” refers to the ulnar nerve, which runs near the elbow and causes a tingling sensation when hit.

Man cannot digest cellulose whereas cows can because

(a) Their gut contains bacteria capable of digesting cellulose

(b) They have a many-chambered stomach

(d) They produce an enzyme cellulase which can digest cellulose
Answer: (a) Their gut contains bacteria capable of digesting cellulose
Explanation: Cows have symbiotic bacteria in their stomachs that help break down cellulose, which humans lack.

Which of the following, when taken by pregnant women, is found to be the cause of deformed children?

(a) Glycerol

(b) Xylidine

(d) None of these
Answer: (c) Thalidomide
Explanation: Thalidomide was a drug that caused severe birth defects when taken by pregnant women in the 1950s and 1960s.

The diploid number of chromosomes in the human body is

(a) 24

(b) 40

(d) 48
Answer: (c) 46
Explanation: Humans have 46 chromosomes in their somatic cells, arranged in 23 pairs.

The largest cell in the human body is

(a) Nerve cell

(b) Muscle cell

(d) Kidney cell
Answer: (a) Nerve cell
Explanation: Nerve cells, or neurons, are the largest cells in the body due to their long extensions (axons).

Lichens are formed due to the symbiotic association of

(a) Moss and fungi

(b) Bacteria and fungi

(d) None of these
Answer: (c) Algae and fungi
Explanation: Lichens are organisms formed from a mutualistic relationship between algae and fungi, where both benefit.

Insects form the largest class of animals living on land and sea. They are grouped into

(a) 22 orders

(b) 26 orders

(d) 32 orders
Answer: (c) 29 orders
Explanation: Insects are classified into 29 orders, making them the largest group of animals in terms of diversity.

Which of the following statements is true for planktons?

(a) They live on the surface of lake water

(b) They live on the bottom of lakes

(d) They live in the water column
Answer: (d) They live in the water column
Explanation: Plankton are small organisms that float in the water column and are a crucial part of aquatic ecosystems.

Which of the following has the smallest egg?

(a) Ostrich

(b) Humming bird

(d) Homo sapiens
Answer: (d) Homo sapiens (Human beings)
Explanation: Human eggs (ova) are microscopic and much smaller than bird eggs.

The population of which of the following is the maximum on Earth?

(a) Reptiles

(b) Fishes

(d) Beetles
Answer: (d) Beetles
Explanation: Beetles represent the largest group of animals on Earth in terms of species diversity.

Poison glands of snakes are homologous to

(a) Stings of rays

(b) Salivary glands of vertebrates

(d) Sebaceous glands of mammals
Answer: (b) Salivary glands of vertebrates
Explanation: The poison glands of snakes are modified salivary glands, evolved to produce venom.

The Phylum Chordata is characterised by the presence of

(a) Spinal cord

(b) Notochord

(d) None of these
Answer: (b) Notochord
Explanation: The notochord is a flexible rod-like structure present in all Chordates, serving as a precursor to the vertebral column in vertebrates.

Which of the following activities is suppressed by the presence of auxins in plants?

(a) Growth of lateral buds

(b) Cell division

(d) Development of fleshy fruits
Answer: (a) Growth of lateral buds
Explanation: Auxins suppress the growth of lateral buds in plants through a process called apical dominance, allowing the main stem to grow.

The head of hospital pharmacy should be a

(a) Post-graduate in science

(b) Post-graduate in pharmacy

(d) Graduate in analytical chemistry
Answer: (b) Post-graduate in pharmacy
Explanation: To manage a hospital pharmacy, one typically requires an advanced degree in pharmacy due to the complexity of the job and responsibilities.

The emergency box in a hospital contains life-saving drugs such as

(a) Adrenalin

(b) Tincture iodine

(d) Gelusil
Answer: (a) Adrenalin
Explanation: Adrenaline is commonly included in emergency kits as it is used to treat severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis) and other critical conditions.

This structure plays an important role in the chemical control of breathing

(a) Hypothalamus

(b) Carotid body

(d) Diaphragmatic stretch receptors
Answer: (b) Carotid body
Explanation: The carotid body monitors the levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood and helps regulate breathing.

The following is an example of physiological antagonism

(a) D-tubocurarine and neostigmine

(b) Histamine and adrenaline

(d) Barium chloride and papaverine
Answer: (b) Histamine and adrenaline
Explanation: Histamine causes vasodilation and bronchoconstriction, while adrenaline reverses these effects, which is why they act as physiological antagonists.

Histamine is released from

(a) Eosinophils

(b) Platelets

(d) Neutrophils
Answer: (c) Basophils
Explanation: Basophils, a type of white blood cell, release histamine during allergic reactions, leading to inflammation.

This drug exhibits tachyphylaxis

(a) Methadone

(b) Thyroxine

(d) Ephedrine
Answer: (d) Ephedrine
Explanation: Tachyphylaxis refers to a rapid decrease in response to a drug, and ephedrine is known to cause this effect with repeated use.

This H1 antagonist does not produce sedation

(a) Cetirizine

(b) Pheniramine maleate

(d) Chlorpheniramine
Answer: (a) Cetirizine
Explanation: Cetirizine is a second-generation antihistamine that does not cross the blood-brain barrier as easily as older drugs, hence causing less sedation.

This drug is preferred for induction of labour

(a) Ergometrine

(b) Prostaglandin E1

(d) Prolactin
Answer: (c) Oxytocin
Explanation: Oxytocin is a hormone that stimulates uterine contractions and is used to induce or speed up labor.

This sulphonamide is used locally for the treatment of burns

(a) Sulfacetamide

(b) Sulphasalazine

(d) Silver sulphadiazine
Answer: (d) Silver sulphadiazine
Explanation: Silver sulphadiazine is commonly applied to burns to prevent bacterial infections.

The drug of choice for the treatment of anaerobes is

(a) Metronidazole

(b) Gentamycin

(d) Nitrofurantoin
Answer: (a) Metronidazole
Explanation: Metronidazole is effective against anaerobic bacteria and protozoa, making it the drug of choice for treating infections caused by these organisms.

Phenytoin sodium produces the following characteristic adverse effect

(a) Insomnia

(b) Lupus erythematosus

(d) Retinopathy
Answer: (c) Gingival hyperplasia
Explanation: Phenytoin, an antiepileptic drug, is associated with gingival hyperplasia, which is the overgrowth of gum tissue.

This is the most suitable anticoagulant for the preservation of blood for transfusion

(a) Sodium citrate

(b) Heparin

(d) Sodium fluoride
Answer: (a) Sodium citrate
Explanation: Sodium citrate is used in blood storage because it binds calcium, preventing blood from clotting during storage.

This drug produces active mydriasis when instilled in the eye

(a) Atropine

(b) Cyclopentolate

(d) Ephedrine
Answer: (a) Atropine
Explanation: Atropine is an anticholinergic drug that causes pupil dilation (mydriasis) when used in the eyes.

The neurotransmitter released from pre-ganglionic sympathetic nerve fibres

(a) Acetylcholine

(b) Norepinephrine

(d) Epinephrine
Answer: (a) Acetylcholine
Explanation: Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter released from pre-ganglionic neurons in both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.

The main function of the cerebellum is

(a) Temperature regulation

(b) Storage of memory

(d) Regulation of respiration
Answer: (c) Regulation of movements of involuntary muscles
Explanation: The cerebellum coordinates voluntary movements, balance, and posture, and helps fine-tune motor activities.

The property that differentiates cardiac muscle from smooth muscle is

(a) Involuntary in nature

(b) Spontaneous contractility

(d) Automaticity and rhythmicity
Answer: (d) Automaticity and rhythmicity
Explanation: Cardiac muscle cells have intrinsic rhythmic contractions (automaticity), which is not a feature of smooth muscles.

This antibiotic is used for the treatment of tuberculosis and leprosy

(a) Ciprofloxacin

(b) Neomycin

(d) Bacitracin
Answer: (c) Rifampicin
Explanation: Rifampicin is a first-line drug used in the treatment of both tuberculosis and leprosy.

This drug is useful in the treatment of chloroquine-resistant malaria

(a) Artemisin

(b) Pyrimethamine

(d) Amodiaquine
Answer: (a) Artemisin
Explanation: Artemisinin and its derivatives are used in the treatment of malaria, especially in cases where the parasite is resistant to chloroquine.

The hardness of water is primarily due to

(a) Iron

(b) Calcium

(d) Sodium
Answer: (b) Calcium
Explanation: Water hardness is mainly caused by the presence of dissolved calcium and magnesium ions.

Excessive doses of the following vitamin may be harmful

(a) Thiamine

(b) Pyridoxine

(d) Vitamin A
Answer: (d) Vitamin A
Explanation: High doses of vitamin A can lead to toxicity, causing symptoms such as liver damage and birth defects.

Which of the following is an epidemic disease?

(a) Malaria

(b) AIDS

(d) Plague
Answer: (b) AIDS
Explanation: AIDS has spread widely and is considered an epidemic in many parts of the world.

This organism is a common cause of hospital-acquired infections

(a) Entamoeba histolytic

(b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

(d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Answer: (b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Explanation: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a common cause of hospital-acquired infections due to its resistance to multiple antibiotics.

This is an example of gram-negative bacteria

(a) Diplococcus pneumonia

(b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

(d) Corynebacterium diphtheria
Answer: (c) Salmonella typhi
Explanation: Salmonella typhi is a gram-negative bacterium responsible for causing typhoid fever.

Which of the following vitamins is associated with the synthesis of coagulation factors?

(a) Vitamin A

(b) Vitamin C

(d) Vitamin K
Answer: (d) Vitamin K
Explanation: Vitamin K plays a crucial role in the synthesis of clotting factors, which are necessary for blood coagulation.

In obstructive jaundice disease, urinary bilirubin is

(a) Absent

(b) Increased

(d) Present in small amounts
Answer: (b) Increased
Explanation: In obstructive jaundice, bile cannot flow normally, leading to increased levels of conjugated bilirubin in the urine.

Which bond is present in the primary structure of protein?

(a) Ester bond

(b) Disulfide bond

(d) Peptide bond
Answer: (d) Peptide bond
Explanation: The primary structure of a protein consists of a sequence of amino acids linked by peptide bonds.

The leading cause of death in an obese person is

(a) Diabetes mellitus

(b) Heart disease

(d) Hypertension
Answer: (b) Heart disease
Explanation: Obesity is a major risk factor for heart disease, which is one of the leading causes of death globally.

Histones are

(a) Carbohydrates

(b) Basic proteins

(d) Enzymes
Answer: (b) Basic proteins
Explanation: Histones are positively charged proteins that help in the organization and packaging of DNA into chromatin.

Barfoed solution is not reduced by

(a) Glucose

(b) Mannose

(d) Ribose
Answer: (c) Sucrose
Explanation: Barfoed’s test differentiates between monosaccharides and disaccharides. Sucrose, a disaccharide, does not reduce Barfoed’s reagent.

Beta-lactam antibiotic is

(a) Bacitracin

(b) Tetracycline

(d) Thiamphenicol
Answer: (c) Amoxicillin
Explanation: Amoxicillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic that works by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis.

An alkaloid used as a local anesthetic is

(a) Procaine

(b) Benzocaine

(d) Lignocaine
Answer: (c) Cocaine
Explanation: Cocaine is a naturally occurring alkaloid that has potent local anesthetic properties.

Solvents used in the extraction process are called as

(a) Extract

b) Menstrum

(d) All of these
Answer: (b) Menstrum
Explanation: In extraction processes, the solvent used to dissolve the active constituents of the crude drug is known as menstrum.

Kieselguhr can be used as a

(a) Disintegrant

(b) Binder

(d) Filter-aid
Answer: (d) Filter-aid
Explanation: Kieselguhr (diatomaceous earth) is commonly used as a filter aid in various filtration processes.

Give the composition of Bactrim

(a) Sulphadiazine and methotrexate

(b) Sulphadimidine and trimethoprim

(d) Sulphamethoxazole and trimethoprim
Answer: (d) Sulphamethoxazole and trimethoprim
Explanation: Bactrim is a combination of sulphamethoxazole and trimethoprim, used to treat bacterial infections by inhibiting folic acid synthesis.

Cyanocobalamin is used in the treatment of

(a Megaloblastic anaemic

(b) Cancer

(d) Inflammation
Answer: (a) Megaloblastic anaemia
Explanation: Cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B12) is used to treat megaloblastic anemia caused by vitamin B12 deficiency.

In the preparation of powders, starch is used as a

(a) Binder

(b) Filler

(d) Lubricant
Answer: (b) Filler
Explanation: Starch is often used as a filler in powder formulations to bulk up the product.

Membrane filters used for sterile filtration are rated as

(a) 0.5 to 0.75 microns

(b) 0-22 to 0.45 microns

(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) 0.22 to 0.45 microns
Explanation: Membrane filters with pore sizes between 0.22 and 0.45 microns are used for sterile filtration, as they can remove bacteria and other microorganisms.

Chewable tablets do not contain

(a) Sweetening agent

(b) Diluent

(d) Flavour
Answer: (c) Disintegrant
Explanation: Chewable tablets are designed to be chewed rather than swallowed whole, so they do not require disintegrants to break them down in the stomach.

An opacifier used in hard gelatin capsules is

(a) Mineral oil

(b) Propylparaben

(d) Gelatin
Answer: (c) Titanium dioxide
Explanation: Titanium dioxide is used as an opacifier to make gelatin capsules opaque and prevent light from affecting the contents.

Occuserts are used to deliver a drug in

(a) Ear

(b) Nose

(d) Gastrointestinal tract
Answer: (c) Eye
Explanation: Occuserts are devices used to deliver drugs directly to the eye for sustained release of medication.

An example of natural hydrocolloid is

(a) Cellulose

(b) Pectin

(d) Precipitated chalk
Answer: (b) Pectin
Explanation: Pectin is a natural hydrocolloid commonly found in fruit and used as a gelling agent.

The tablets of tetracycline should be manufactured as per the conditions specified in schedule

(a) F

(b) C

(d) X
Answer: (b) C
Explanation: Schedule C specifies the requirements for the manufacture of drugs like tetracycline that must adhere to certain safety and quality standards.

Which distribution system is used in a hospital to save time, minimize loss of partially used drugs, and enable the pharmacist to counsel patients?

(a) Individual prescription order system

(b) Complete floor stock system

(d) None of the above
Answer: (c) Unit dose system
Explanation: The unit dose system provides medications in individual doses, which reduces waste and allows pharmacists to focus more on patient care.

In what ratio should Tween 80 (HLB-16) and Span 20 (HLB-4) be mixed to prepare a blend with HLB 7.0?

(a) 4:1

(b) 1:3

(d) 7:16
Answer: (b) 1:3
Explanation: To achieve an HLB value of 7.0, Tween 80 and Span 20 need to be mixed in a ratio of 1:3.

The manpower trained in pharmacy varies with the size of the hospital; if a hospital has 200 beds, the number of pharmacists required are

(a) 6

(b) 7

(d) 9
Answer: (c) 8
Explanation: Typically, a hospital with 200 beds requires around 8 pharmacists to manage medication dispensing and counseling.

TQM stands for

(a) Total Quantity Management

(b) Total Quality Management

(d) None of above
Answer: (b) Total Quality Management
Explanation: Total Quality Management (TQM) is a management approach focused on continuous improvement of quality in all aspects of an organization.

In Ayurvedic liquid preparation, arkayantra is used for

(a) Distillation

(b) Size reduction

(d) None of above
Answer: (a) Distillation
Explanation: Arkayantra is a distillation apparatus used in Ayurveda to prepare herbal distillates like arkas.

“Let likes be treated by likes” is the basic principle of which system of medicine?

(a) Ayurvedic

(b) Homoeopathy

(d) Siddha
Answer: (b) Homeopathy
Explanation: Homeopathy operates on the principle of “similia similibus curentur,” meaning “like cures like.”

Production of no urine is termed as

(a) Anurea

(b) Oligourea

(d) Glycosurea
Answer: (a) Anurea
Explanation: Anurea refers to the absence of urine production, which can be a sign of kidney failure or other serious conditions.

Somatostatin is secreted by _____ cells of the pancreas

(a) Alpha

(b) Beta

(d) Delta
Answer: (d) Delta
Explanation: Somatostatin, a hormone that inhibits the release of several other hormones, is produced by delta cells in the pancreas.