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Pharmacology Quiz 1

Dive into the world of pharmaceuticals with our specially curated pharmacology quizzes designed to sharpen the minds of aspiring pharmacy students. Whether you’re gearing up for competitive exams or simply want to test your knowledge in the fascinating realm of drugs and their interactions, PharmNotes is your go-to resource.

Pharmacology Quiz

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1 / 44

1. Regarding opioids:

a. the most reliable indicator of respiratory depression is a depressed response to CO2 challenge

b. people with Addison’s disease have normal response to opioids

c. neonates have a blood – brain barrier for opioids

d. tolerance develops with miosis

e. at the spinal level, only the receptors contribute to analgesia

2 / 44

2. Regarding diazepam:

a. It is a GABA antagonist via the benzodiazepine receptors

b. It undergoes extensive enterohepatic recirculation

c. It has no active metabolites

d. Activated charcoal is useful in overdose

e. It has no spinal inhibitory action

3 / 44

3. Cephalosporins are:

a. all of the above

b. excreted via the kidneys in the tubules

c. are classified on the basis of antibacterial activity

d. excreted in the bile

e. drugs that can undergo hepatic metabolism

4 / 44

4. Amiodarone:

a. Has little effect on the lung

b. Has antianginal effects

c. Has a short half life

d. Effects Na+, K+ channels but not Ca2+ channels

e. Increases peripheral resistance

5 / 44

5. Volume of distribution:

a. Is always a real volume

b. Amount of drug in body / Concentration of drug in plasma

c. Concentration of drug in plasma / Amount of drug in blood

d. Amount of drug in plasma / Concentration in body

e. AUC / Dose

6 / 44

6. Regarding glucocorticoids:

a. A normal adult male secretes 100mg of cortisol each day

b. Feedback suppression of pituitary ACTH occurs within hours

c. Absence of cortisol increases the response of vascular and smooth muscle tone to catecholamines

d. Inhibition of leucocyte and tissue macrophages is not an action of glucocorticoids

e. The major glucocorticoid in humans is cortisol

7 / 44

7. Dobutamine:

a. may be used in heart failure

b. has no arrhythmogenic effect

c. decreases myocardial oxygen consumption

d. is a non selective beta agonist

e. predominantly affects D2 receptors in the central nervous system

8 / 44

8. All are true about penicillins EXCEPT:

a. Piperacillin is a penicillin active against pseudomonas

b. Penicillins don’t require adjustment in renal failure

c. Only about 5-10% of people with a past history of penicillin allergy have a reaction on re-exposure

d. Most penicillins only cross blood-brain barrier when the meninges are inflamed

e. Penicillins inhibit cross linkage of peptidoglycans in cell wall

9 / 44

9. Trimethoprim:

a. activates dihydrofolic acid reductase

b. has limited activity in the prostate gland

c. is a weak base

d. does not distribute into the CSF

e. is harmless in pregnancy

10 / 44

10. Effects of b blockers include:

a. inhibition of bronchial smooth muscle spasm

b. stimulation of lipolysis via the sympathetic nervous system

c. stimulation of aqueous humour production

d. stimulation of the release of renin

e. inhibition of glycogenolysis in the liver

11 / 44

11. Which statement is false:

a. none of the above

b. drug A with a higher potency than drug B, can still have the same efficacy

c. drug A with a lower potency must have a lower efficacy than drug B

d. drug A with a higher affinity for its drug receptors have a higher potency

e. drug A with a higher potency can have a lower efficacy than drug B

12 / 44

12. Aspirin:

a. Exhibits first order kinetics with elimination in low doses

b. Is hydrolysed to acetone and salicylate

c. Reversibly blocks the cyclooxygenase enzyme

d. Causes an immediate doubling of bleeding time

e. Is mostly conjugated by the liver and excreted in the bile

13 / 44

13. Of the secondary messengers:

a. compared to cAMP, cGMP is a more versatile and ubiquitous carrier of diverse messages

b. cAMP’s effector enzyme is adenylyl cyclase

c. upregulation of cAMP degradation is one way theophylline produces its effects

d. phosphoinositides act independently of phospholipase -C

e. all of the above

14 / 44

14. Regarding drugs used in the treatment of status epilepsy:

a. phenytoin may be diluted in both saline and dextrose

b. phenytoin is useful in status for its sedating as well as anticonvulsant activity

c. administration of phenytoin should be at a minimum rate of 50mg/min

d. respiratory depression is a common complication of phenobarbitone

e. the effect of diazepam is long lasting

15 / 44

15. The following drug may be used safely in pregnancy:

a. Methotrexate

b. Carbamazepine

c. Propylthiouracil

d. Digoxin

e. Streptomycin

16 / 44

16. Regarding active immunisation:

a. booster doses for yellow fever are not required

b. the hepatitis B vaccine is preferably given by subcutaneous injection

c. the meningococcal vaccine should be given to asplenic individuals

d. the measles vaccine is an inactivated virus

e. primary immunisation for haemophilis influenzae type B involves two doses given one month apart

17 / 44

17. Which of the following receptor-ligand pathway is TRUE:

a. Insulin and G-protein receptor

b. Mineralocorticoid and tyrosine kinase receptor

c. Vitamin D and intracellular receptor

d. Adrenaline and ligand gated channel receptor

e. Platelet derived growth factor and cytokine receptor

18 / 44

18. Warfarin:

a. Inactivates Vit K

b. Loading should be initiated with 0.5mg / day

c. Effect is ameliorated by metronidazole via a bactericidal affect

d. Is 90% bioavailable

e. Can cause venous thrombosis

19 / 44

19. Haloperidol:

a. is particularly prone to producing hypotensive side-effects

b. is particularly prone to producing anti-muscarinic side-effects

c. is particularly prone to producing extrapyramidal side-effects

d. is particularly prone to producing arrhythmias

e. is particularly prone to producing a toxic confusional state

20 / 44

20. Regarding biotransformation, which of the following is true:

a. grapefruit juice inhibits cyclosporin metabolism

b. rifampicin inhibits oral contraceptives metabolism

c. griseofulvin inhibits warfarin metabolism

d. phenytoin inhibits theophylline metabolism

e. ethanol enhances methanol metabolism

21 / 44

21. Regarding NSAIDS:

a. aspirin is a reversible inhibitor of cyclooxygenase

b. all NSAIDS can be found in synovial fluid after repeated dosing

c. aspirin at a does of  2g/day reduces uric acid levels

d. use of ibuprofen and aspirin together increases the anti-inflammatory effect

e. at high doses aspirin demonstrates first order kinetics

22 / 44

22. Bioavailability is:

a. is not affected by first pass metabolism

b. is equivalent to absorption minus the extraction rate for an orally administered drug

c. less than 100% by any route

d. is close to 80% for orally administered verapamil

e. is the percentage of a drug formulation that is absorbed

23 / 44

23. Which of the following antihypertensives act on the vasomotor centre:

a. Prazosin

b. Methyldopa

c. Reserpine

d. Iosartan

e. Hydralazine

24 / 44

24. Which of the following are antagonist and agonist pairs for the same receptor:

a. bromocriptine, pranipexole

b. pilocarpine, bethanechol

c. oxymetazoline, dobutamine

d. phenyoxybenzamine, cyclopentolate

e. butoxamine, terbutaline

25 / 44

25. Atropine:

a. Produces miosis

b. Can cause bronchodilation

c. Blocks reuptake of ACH

d. Causes an increase in salivary gland secretions

e. Is not lipid-soluble

26 / 44

26. Heparin:

a. Oral bioavailability is 20-30%

b. Binds to anti-thrombin III causing a conformational change

c. Inhibits clotting by decreasing anti-thrombin III effects

d. Molecular weight ranges from 3,000 – 60,000

e. Is low plasma protein bound

27 / 44

27. GTN has its major effect on effort angina by:

a. Reducing afterload and preload

b. Reduction in renin-ang II system effect

c. Systemic vasoconstriction

d. Coronary vasodilation

e. Reducing coronary vasospasm

28 / 44

28. Toxicity of nicotine containing products:

a. will result in several days of nausea and vomiting

b. will have no effects on the foetus

c. may result in neuromuscular blockade best treated with atropine

d. usually causes hypotension

e. can be symptomatically controlled with benzodiazepines

29 / 44

29. The following are side effects of SSRI’s EXCEPT:

a. weight gain

b. gastrointestinal symptoms

c. anxiety

d. sexual dysfunction

e. rash

30 / 44

30. With regard to non-depolarising neuromuscular blocking drugs:

a. rocuronium is an isoquinolone derivative

b. pancuronium is eliminated via the kidney

c. rocuronium undergoes Hoffman elimination

d. vecuronium is eliminated predominantly via the kdney

e. atracurium is eliminated via plasma pseudocholinesterases

31 / 44

31. Regarding first pass metabolism:

a. its effect on bioavailability is expressed as the extraction ratio where ER = CL (liver) /Q (liver)

b. it makes it impossible to attain therapeutic levels of lignocaine using oral dosage

c. it reduces the bioavailability of oral morphine to 15%

d. the extraction ratio of phenytoin is higher

e. it affects volume of distribution

32 / 44

32. Age associated changes in pharmacokinetics include:

a. a decreased absorption related to age alone

b. an increase in body water

c. a reduction in creatinine clearance in two thirds of the population

d. a decrease in body fat

e. a greater reduction in conjugation compared with oxidation

33 / 44

33. The following are true for adrenaline EXCEPT

a. Alpha receptor stimulation results in decreased cAMP production

b. In cardiac arrest it facilitates CPR via peripheral varioconstruction

c. It acts via G-proteins

d. It has no active metabolites

e. It may be administered via inhalation, orally and parentally

34 / 44

34. Most b blockers:

a. Are highly lipid soluble and hence cross the blood-brain barrier

b. Have poor oral bioavailability

c. Have a small volume of distribution

d. Are rarely excreted unchanged

e. Have half lives of 3-10 hours

35 / 44

35. Tricyclic antidepressants:

a. Block the enzyme which degrades amine neurotransmitters

b. Can prolong QT interval

c. Have a low volume of distribution

d. Are useful in urinary retention and chronic pain

e. Is useful in severe depression with strong suicidal ideation

36 / 44

36. Regarding antibiotic resistance:

a. beta lactamase are identical but produced by different bacteria

b. methicillin resistance in staphylococcus is due to betalactamase production

c. penicillin resistance is mainly because of alteration in the target PBPs

d. betalactamase production is responsible for penicillin resistance in pneumococci

e. penicillin’s inability to penetrate the organism is more common with gram –ve bacteria

37 / 44

37. Regarding calcium channel blockers:

a. not all are active when given orally

b. they do not affect bronchiolar smooth muscle

c. most have half lives of 8-12 hours

d. dihydropyridines typically cause bradycardia

e. mechanism of action is the blockage of voltage dependent L-type calcium channels

38 / 44

38. Regarding inhaled anaesthetics:

a. nitrous oxide has a relatively low minimum alveolar concentration

b. halogenated agents have a lower brain : blood partition coefficient

c. they decrease the metabolic rate in the brain by decreasing cerebral blood flow

d. nitrous oxide causes a decrease in tidal volume and an increase in respiratory rate

e. they reduce mean arterial pressure in direct proportion to their alveolar concentration

39 / 44

39. ACE inhibitors:

a. cause hyperkalaemia less often in patients with diabetes

b. lead to decreased prostaglandin synthesis

c. decrease glomerular efferent arteriolar resistance

d. are contraindicated in patients on NSAIDS

e. decrease levels of bradykinin

40 / 44

40. Local anaesthetic agents:

a. are primarily potassium channel blockers

b. activity is enhanced by high extracellular (Ca++)

c. can be used with a vasodilator to prolong local action

d. activity is enhanced by high extracellular K+ concentration

e. prevent repolarisation of the membrane

41 / 44

41. With regard to oral anti-asthmatic agents:

a. methotrexate has been shown to be beneficial in prednisone-dependent asthmatics in all studies

b. macrolide antibiotics show no benefit in managing asthmatics

c. oral nifedipine significantly inhibits exercise-induced bronhoconstriction

d. cyclosporin’s toxicity limits its use as an oral anti-asthmatic agent

e. prednisone is a long acting glucocorticoid

42 / 44

42. Regarding phenytoin, all the following are true EXCEPT:

a. metabolism is enhanced in presence of inducers of liver metabolism

b. half life varies from 12-36 hours

c. elimination kinetics shift from first order to zero order at moderate to high dose

d. oral bioavailability is variable

e. binds poorly with plasma proteins

43 / 44

43. Drugs with no significant effect on anticoagulant therapy include:

a. benzodiazepines

b. flucanazole

c. disulfiram

d. amiodarone

e. metronidazole

44 / 44

44. Clearance:

a. is constant for most drugs in clinical settings at therapeutic levels

b. is inversely proportional to volume of distribution

c. is independent of concentration for phenytoin

d. is very high for lithium

e. is the amount of drug eliminated divided by the concentration of the drug

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