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Pharmacology Quiz 1

Dive into the world of pharmaceuticals with our specially curated pharmacology quizzes designed to sharpen the minds of aspiring pharmacy students. Whether you’re gearing up for competitive exams or simply want to test your knowledge in the fascinating realm of drugs and their interactions, PharmNotes is your go-to resource.

Pharmacology Quiz

1 / 44

Regarding calcium channel blockers:

most have half lives of 8-12 hours

they do not affect bronchiolar smooth muscle

not all are active when given orally

dihydropyridines typically cause bradycardia

mechanism of action is the blockage of voltage dependent L-type calcium channels

2 / 44

Regarding biotransformation, which of the following is true:

ethanol enhances methanol metabolism

grapefruit juice inhibits cyclosporin metabolism

griseofulvin inhibits warfarin metabolism

rifampicin inhibits oral contraceptives metabolism

phenytoin inhibits theophylline metabolism

3 / 44

Which of the following antihypertensives act on the vasomotor centre:

Methyldopa

Iosartan

Reserpine

Hydralazine

Prazosin

4 / 44

Clearance:

is very high for lithium

is inversely proportional to volume of distribution

is independent of concentration for phenytoin

is constant for most drugs in clinical settings at therapeutic levels

is the amount of drug eliminated divided by the concentration of the drug

5 / 44

The following drug may be used safely in pregnancy:

Propylthiouracil

Streptomycin

Carbamazepine

Digoxin

Methotrexate

6 / 44

The following are true for adrenaline EXCEPT

It may be administered via inhalation, orally and parentally

It acts via G-proteins

In cardiac arrest it facilitates CPR via peripheral varioconstruction

Alpha receptor stimulation results in decreased cAMP production

It has no active metabolites

7 / 44

Bioavailability is:

less than 100% by any route

is not affected by first pass metabolism

is the percentage of a drug formulation that is absorbed

is equivalent to absorption minus the extraction rate for an orally administered drug

is close to 80% for orally administered verapamil

8 / 44

Cephalosporins are:

all of the above

excreted via the kidneys in the tubules

are classified on the basis of antibacterial activity

drugs that can undergo hepatic metabolism

excreted in the bile

9 / 44

Amiodarone:

Has antianginal effects

Has little effect on the lung

Increases peripheral resistance

Has a short half life

Effects Na+, K+ channels but not Ca2+ channels

10 / 44

Regarding opioids:

neonates have a blood – brain barrier for opioids

people with Addison’s disease have normal response to opioids

at the spinal level, only the receptors contribute to analgesia

the most reliable indicator of respiratory depression is a depressed response to CO2 challenge

tolerance develops with miosis

11 / 44

Toxicity of nicotine containing products:

may result in neuromuscular blockade best treated with atropine

will result in several days of nausea and vomiting

can be symptomatically controlled with benzodiazepines

usually causes hypotension

will have no effects on the foetus

12 / 44

Aspirin:

Exhibits first order kinetics with elimination in low doses

Causes an immediate doubling of bleeding time

Is hydrolysed to acetone and salicylate

Reversibly blocks the cyclooxygenase enzyme

Is mostly conjugated by the liver and excreted in the bile

13 / 44

Regarding NSAIDS:

aspirin at a does of  2g/day reduces uric acid levels

aspirin is a reversible inhibitor of cyclooxygenase

all NSAIDS can be found in synovial fluid after repeated dosing

at high doses aspirin demonstrates first order kinetics

use of ibuprofen and aspirin together increases the anti-inflammatory effect

14 / 44

Dobutamine:

is a non selective beta agonist

may be used in heart failure

predominantly affects D2 receptors in the central nervous system

decreases myocardial oxygen consumption

has no arrhythmogenic effect

15 / 44

Regarding first pass metabolism:

its effect on bioavailability is expressed as the extraction ratio where ER = CL (liver) /Q (liver)

the extraction ratio of phenytoin is higher

it affects volume of distribution

it reduces the bioavailability of oral morphine to 15%

it makes it impossible to attain therapeutic levels of lignocaine using oral dosage

16 / 44

Which of the following are antagonist and agonist pairs for the same receptor:

oxymetazoline, dobutamine

butoxamine, terbutaline

phenyoxybenzamine, cyclopentolate

bromocriptine, pranipexole

pilocarpine, bethanechol

17 / 44

With regard to non-depolarising neuromuscular blocking drugs:

pancuronium is eliminated via the kidney

rocuronium undergoes Hoffman elimination

rocuronium is an isoquinolone derivative

atracurium is eliminated via plasma pseudocholinesterases

vecuronium is eliminated predominantly via the kdney

18 / 44

The following are side effects of SSRI’s EXCEPT:

anxiety

gastrointestinal symptoms

rash

sexual dysfunction

weight gain

19 / 44

Which of the following receptor-ligand pathway is TRUE:

Mineralocorticoid and tyrosine kinase receptor

Platelet derived growth factor and cytokine receptor

Vitamin D and intracellular receptor

Adrenaline and ligand gated channel receptor

Insulin and G-protein receptor

20 / 44

Warfarin:

Inactivates Vit K

Loading should be initiated with 0.5mg / day

Can cause venous thrombosis

Is 90% bioavailable

Effect is ameliorated by metronidazole via a bactericidal affect

21 / 44

ACE inhibitors:

lead to decreased prostaglandin synthesis

are contraindicated in patients on NSAIDS

decrease levels of bradykinin

cause hyperkalaemia less often in patients with diabetes

decrease glomerular efferent arteriolar resistance

22 / 44

Regarding drugs used in the treatment of status epilepsy:

administration of phenytoin should be at a minimum rate of 50mg/min

respiratory depression is a common complication of phenobarbitone

phenytoin may be diluted in both saline and dextrose

phenytoin is useful in status for its sedating as well as anticonvulsant activity

the effect of diazepam is long lasting

23 / 44

Which statement is false:

drug A with a higher affinity for its drug receptors have a higher potency

none of the above

drug A with a lower potency must have a lower efficacy than drug B

drug A with a higher potency than drug B, can still have the same efficacy

drug A with a higher potency can have a lower efficacy than drug B

24 / 44

Local anaesthetic agents:

prevent repolarisation of the membrane

activity is enhanced by high extracellular (Ca++)

can be used with a vasodilator to prolong local action

are primarily potassium channel blockers

activity is enhanced by high extracellular K+ concentration

25 / 44

Volume of distribution:

Concentration of drug in plasma / Amount of drug in blood

Amount of drug in plasma / Concentration in body

Amount of drug in body / Concentration of drug in plasma

Is always a real volume

AUC / Dose

26 / 44

Regarding diazepam:

It is a GABA antagonist via the benzodiazepine receptors

Activated charcoal is useful in overdose

It has no spinal inhibitory action

It has no active metabolites

It undergoes extensive enterohepatic recirculation

27 / 44

Atropine:

Can cause bronchodilation

Produces miosis

Is not lipid-soluble

Causes an increase in salivary gland secretions

Blocks reuptake of ACH

28 / 44

Regarding antibiotic resistance:

penicillin resistance is mainly because of alteration in the target PBPs

penicillin’s inability to penetrate the organism is more common with gram –ve bacteria

betalactamase production is responsible for penicillin resistance in pneumococci

methicillin resistance in staphylococcus is due to betalactamase production

beta lactamase are identical but produced by different bacteria

29 / 44

Most b blockers:

Have half lives of 3-10 hours

Are rarely excreted unchanged

Are highly lipid soluble and hence cross the blood-brain barrier

Have a small volume of distribution

Have poor oral bioavailability

30 / 44

All are true about penicillins EXCEPT:

Penicillins don’t require adjustment in renal failure

Most penicillins only cross blood-brain barrier when the meninges are inflamed

Piperacillin is a penicillin active against pseudomonas

Only about 5-10% of people with a past history of penicillin allergy have a reaction on re-exposure

Penicillins inhibit cross linkage of peptidoglycans in cell wall

31 / 44

Regarding phenytoin, all the following are true EXCEPT:

metabolism is enhanced in presence of inducers of liver metabolism

half life varies from 12-36 hours

oral bioavailability is variable

elimination kinetics shift from first order to zero order at moderate to high dose

binds poorly with plasma proteins

32 / 44

Drugs with no significant effect on anticoagulant therapy include:

disulfiram

metronidazole

amiodarone

flucanazole

benzodiazepines

33 / 44

Age associated changes in pharmacokinetics include:

a reduction in creatinine clearance in two thirds of the population

an increase in body water

a greater reduction in conjugation compared with oxidation

a decrease in body fat

a decreased absorption related to age alone

34 / 44

Regarding inhaled anaesthetics:

halogenated agents have a lower brain : blood partition coefficient

they reduce mean arterial pressure in direct proportion to their alveolar concentration

they decrease the metabolic rate in the brain by decreasing cerebral blood flow

nitrous oxide has a relatively low minimum alveolar concentration

nitrous oxide causes a decrease in tidal volume and an increase in respiratory rate

35 / 44

Trimethoprim:

is harmless in pregnancy

does not distribute into the CSF

has limited activity in the prostate gland

is a weak base

activates dihydrofolic acid reductase

36 / 44

With regard to oral anti-asthmatic agents:

cyclosporin’s toxicity limits its use as an oral anti-asthmatic agent

oral nifedipine significantly inhibits exercise-induced bronhoconstriction

methotrexate has been shown to be beneficial in prednisone-dependent asthmatics in all studies

prednisone is a long acting glucocorticoid

macrolide antibiotics show no benefit in managing asthmatics

37 / 44

Of the secondary messengers:

all of the above

compared to cAMP, cGMP is a more versatile and ubiquitous carrier of diverse messages

cAMP’s effector enzyme is adenylyl cyclase

upregulation of cAMP degradation is one way theophylline produces its effects

phosphoinositides act independently of phospholipase -C

38 / 44

GTN has its major effect on effort angina by:

Reducing afterload and preload

Reducing coronary vasospasm

Coronary vasodilation

Systemic vasoconstriction

Reduction in renin-ang II system effect

39 / 44

Effects of b blockers include:

stimulation of lipolysis via the sympathetic nervous system

inhibition of glycogenolysis in the liver

stimulation of aqueous humour production

stimulation of the release of renin

inhibition of bronchial smooth muscle spasm

40 / 44

Regarding active immunisation:

booster doses for yellow fever are not required

the measles vaccine is an inactivated virus

the meningococcal vaccine should be given to asplenic individuals

the hepatitis B vaccine is preferably given by subcutaneous injection

primary immunisation for haemophilis influenzae type B involves two doses given one month apart

41 / 44

Heparin:

Is low plasma protein bound

Binds to anti-thrombin III causing a conformational change

Molecular weight ranges from 3,000 – 60,000

Oral bioavailability is 20-30%

Inhibits clotting by decreasing anti-thrombin III effects

42 / 44

Regarding glucocorticoids:

Absence of cortisol increases the response of vascular and smooth muscle tone to catecholamines

The major glucocorticoid in humans is cortisol

Feedback suppression of pituitary ACTH occurs within hours

A normal adult male secretes 100mg of cortisol each day

Inhibition of leucocyte and tissue macrophages is not an action of glucocorticoids

43 / 44

Tricyclic antidepressants:

Have a low volume of distribution

Block the enzyme which degrades amine neurotransmitters

Can prolong QT interval

Are useful in urinary retention and chronic pain

Is useful in severe depression with strong suicidal ideation

44 / 44

Haloperidol:

is particularly prone to producing arrhythmias

is particularly prone to producing a toxic confusional state

is particularly prone to producing anti-muscarinic side-effects

is particularly prone to producing hypotensive side-effects

is particularly prone to producing extrapyramidal side-effects

Your score is

The average score is 34%

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQ) – Pharmacology MCQs

Q1: What are Pharmacology MCQs? Pharmacology MCQs (Multiple Choice Questions) are a set of questions designed to assess and deepen understanding of drug-related concepts. They consist of a question stem with multiple answer options, testing knowledge on drug classifications, mechanisms of action, and related topics.

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