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KPSC Pharmacist Solved Paper 2019 With Explanation

KPSC Pharmacist Solved Paper 2019

Maximum: 100 marks

Time: 1 hour and 15 minutes

1. Number of Neutrons in ⁵⁶Fe₂₆ is:

(A) 30

(B) 56

(D) 82

Answer: (A) 30
Explanation: The number of neutrons is calculated by subtracting the atomic number (26) from the mass number (56). Thus, Neutrons = 56 – 26 = 30.

2. Which of the following radiation have least penetrability?

(A) X-ray

(B) Beta particles

(D) Alpha particles

Answer: (D) Alpha particles
Explanation: Alpha particles have the least penetrating power as they are heavier and can be stopped by a sheet of paper or skin.

3. Phytomenadione is:

(A) Niacin

(B) Vitamin K

(D) Lipoic acid

Answer: (B) Vitamin K
Explanation: Phytomenadione, also known as Vitamin K1, is important for blood clotting.

4. The rate-limiting step in glycolysis is catalyzed by the enzyme:

(A) Phosphofructokinase

(B) Aldolase

(D) Hexokinase

Answer: (A) Phosphofructokinase
Explanation: Phosphofructokinase is the key regulatory enzyme controlling the rate of glycolysis.

5. What is spirit of salt?

(A) MgSO₄

(B) Na₂B₄O₇

(D) HCl

Answer: (D) HCl
Explanation: Spirit of salt refers to hydrochloric acid (HCl), a commonly used chemical in cleaning and industrial processes.

6. Which of the following is useful in Cyanide poisoning?

(A) Sodium bisulphite

(B) Sodium metabisulphite

(D) Sodium thiosulphate

Answer: (D) Sodium thiosulphate
Explanation: Sodium thiosulphate acts as a detoxifying agent by converting cyanide to thiocyanate, which is less toxic and easily excreted.

7. Nitrous Oxide is stored in:

(A) Blue colored cylinder

(B) Grey colored cylinders

(D) Orange colored cylinders

Answer: (A) Blue colored cylinder
Explanation: Nitrous oxide, commonly used in anesthesia, is stored in blue-colored cylinders.

8. True antagonist of morphine:

(A) Nalorphine

(B) Naloxone

(D) Methadone

Answer: (B) Naloxone
Explanation: Naloxone is a pure opioid antagonist, reversing the effects of morphine in cases of overdose.

9. Ma-Huang is another name of:

(A) Ephedra

(B) Artemesia

(D) Cascara

Answer: (A) Ephedra
Explanation: Ma-Huang refers to Ephedra, a plant used in traditional Chinese medicine for asthma and bronchitis.

10. An adulterant of digitalis leaves:

(A) Verbascum thapses

(B) Cayratia pedata

(D) Cymbopogon flexuosus

Answer: (A) Verbascum thapsus
Explanation: Verbascum thapsus (mullein) is an adulterant sometimes found in digitalis leaves.

11. Which of the following is anti-oestrogen?

(A) Tibolone

(B) Clomiphene

(D) Mifepristone

Answer: (B) Clomiphene
Explanation: Clomiphene is an anti-oestrogen drug that is used to stimulate ovulation in women experiencing infertility.

12. Uterine relaxants are also known as:

(A) Ecbolics

(B) Tocolytics

(D) Analeptics

Answer: (B) Tocolytics
Explanation: Tocolytics are medications used to suppress premature labor by relaxing the uterus.

13. Through which route Ipratropium bromide is administered?

(A) Subcutaneous

(B) Topical application

(D) Inhalation

Answer: (D) Inhalation
Explanation: Ipratropium bromide is commonly used as an inhaler for the treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and asthma.

14. Which of the following is fourth generation cephalosporin?

(A) Cephalothin

(B) Cephamandole

(D) Ceftriaxone

Answer: (C) Cefepime
Explanation: Cefepime is a fourth-generation cephalosporin used for treating severe bacterial infections.

15. Example for atypical antipsychotic:

(A) Haloperidol

(B) Penfluridol

(D) Thioridazine

Answer: (C) Olanzapine
Explanation: Olanzapine is classified as an atypical antipsychotic and is used to treat schizophrenia and bipolar disorder.

16. Fluoxetine is an example for:

(A) Atypical antidepressant

(B) Serotonin and Noradrenaline Re-uptake Inhibitor

(D) Selective Serotonin Re-uptake Inhibitor

Answer: (D) Selective Serotonin Re-uptake Inhibitor (SSRI)
Explanation: Fluoxetine is an SSRI used primarily to treat depression, anxiety disorders, and other mood disorders.

17. Digoxin act on by inhibiting:

(A) Na+K + ATP ase

(B) Myosine light chain kinase

(D) Glut-4

Answer: (A) Na+K+ ATPase
Explanation: Digoxin inhibits Na+K+ ATPase, leading to increased intracellular calcium and enhanced cardiac contractility.

18. Ankle oedema is a frequent adverse effect of:

(A) Propranolol

(B) Nifedipine

(D) Nicorandil

Answer: (B) Nifedipine
Explanation: Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema, particularly in the ankles.

19. Which of the following is potassium sparing diuretic?

(A) Eplerenone

(B) Ethacrynic acid

(D) Hydrochlorothiazide

Answer: (A) Eplerenone
Explanation: Eplerenone is a potassium-sparing diuretic used in the management of heart failure and hypertension.

20. Which vitamine is given along with INH to reduce risk of neurotoxicity?

(A) Niacin

(B) Pyridoxine

(D) Thiamine

Answer: (B) Pyridoxine
Explanation: Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6) is given with INH to prevent peripheral neuropathy, a common side effect of isoniazid therapy for tuberculosis.

21. The first Pharmacy council of India was started functioning in:

(A) 1952

(B) 1950

(D) 1955

Answer: (C) 1949
Explanation: The Pharmacy Council of India was established under the Pharmacy Act of 1948 and began functioning in 1949.

22. For the constitution of State Pharmacy Council, the respective State Government have to nominate —————— Government analyst(s).

(A) Two

(B) One

(D) Three

Answer: (B) One
Explanation: The State Pharmacy Council must include at least one government analyst as per the regulations.

23. Which of the defect in an emulsion make most unstable?

(A) Creaming

(B) Flocculation

(D) Sedimentation

Answer: (C) Cracking
Explanation: Cracking occurs when the emulsifying agent is unable to maintain the dispersed phase, leading to phase separation and making the emulsion highly unstable.

24. Approximate chemical formula of bleaching powder is:

(A) Ca₂OCl₂

(B) (CaO)₂Cl

(D) Ca(OH)Cl₂

Answer: (C) Ca(OCl)Cl
Explanation: Bleaching powder, commonly used for disinfection and bleaching, has the chemical formula Ca(OCl)Cl.

25. Which antiviral drug is found to be useful in parkinsonism?

(A) Abacavir

(B) Oseltamivir

(D) Amantadine

Answer: (D) Amantadine
Explanation: Amantadine is an antiviral that also has antiparkinsonian properties, as it increases dopamine release.

26. Who is responsible for preparation and maintenance of first register?

(A) Pharmacy Council of India

(B) DGHS

(D) AICTE

Answer: (C) State Pharmacy Councils
Explanation: The State Pharmacy Councils are responsible for maintaining the registers of pharmacists in their respective states.

27. Which of the following drug shows immune-suppressant activity?

(A) Levamizole

(B) Miconazole

(D) Itraconazole

Answer: (A) Levamisole
Explanation: Levamisole is used as an immunomodulator and has been employed in the treatment of certain cancers and autoimmune diseases.

28. Neuroleptic agents are also known as:

(A) Psycho-analeptics

(B) Major tranquilizers

(D) Mood elevators

Answer: (B) Major tranquilizers
Explanation: Neuroleptics, also known as antipsychotic drugs, are referred to as major tranquilizers due to their sedative and antipsychotic effects.

29. Extrapyramidal side effects are common with:

(A) Chloramphenicol

(B) Chlorpheneramine

(D) Chlorpromazine

Answer: (D) Chlorpromazine
Explanation: Chlorpromazine, an antipsychotic, is associated with extrapyramidal side effects such as tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia.

30. Which of the opium alkaloid is benzyl isoquinoline derivative?

(A) Morphine

(B) Codeine

(D) Papaverine

Answer: (D) Papaverine
Explanation: Papaverine is an opium alkaloid that belongs to the benzyl isoquinoline class and is used as a smooth muscle relaxant.

31. Weakly acidic drugs are better absorbed from:

(A) Alkaline pH

(B) Neutral pH

(D) Very high pH

Answer: (C) Acidic pH
Explanation: Weakly acidic drugs are better absorbed in an acidic environment (such as the stomach) because they remain in their non-ionized, lipid-soluble form.

32. Pick out the Choline esterase re-activator:

(A) Atropine

(B) Flumazenil

(D) Donepezil

Answer: (C) Pralidoxime
Explanation: Pralidoxime is used to reactivate cholinesterase, which is inhibited in cases of organophosphate poisoning.

33. Ondansetron act by antagonism of:

(A) 5HT-3 receptor

(B) H2 receptor

(D) D2 receptor

Answer: (A) 5HT-3 receptor
Explanation: Ondansetron is a selective 5HT-3 receptor antagonist used to prevent nausea and vomiting, especially post-chemotherapy or post-surgery.

34. Which one is an important drug in paracetamol poisoning?

(A) N-acetyl p-benzoquinoneimine

(B) N-acetyl muramic acid

(D) N- Acetyl cysteine

Answer: (D) N-Acetyl cysteine
Explanation: N-Acetyl cysteine (NAC) acts as a precursor to glutathione, helping to detoxify the harmful metabolites of paracetamol in overdose cases.

35. Which of the following is a good uricosuric agent:

(A) Sulfamethoxazole

(B) Sulfanilamide

(D) Sulphacetamide

Answer: (C) Sulfinpyrazone
Explanation: Sulfinpyrazone is a uricosuric agent that promotes the excretion of uric acid, making it useful in treating gout.

36. Example for ultra short acting barbiturate:

(A) Secobarbitone

(B) Methohexitone

(D) Amylobarbitone

Answer: (B) Methohexitone
Explanation: Methohexitone is an ultra short-acting barbiturate used primarily for inducing anesthesia.

37. Oto and nephro toxicity is common with which class of antibiotics?

(A) Macrolides

(B) Carbepenams

(D) Polyenes

Answer: (C) Aminoglycosides
Explanation: Aminoglycosides, such as gentamicin and amikacin, are associated with oto- and nephro-toxicity.

38. Which of the following is selective MAO-B inhibitor:

(A) Selegiline

(B) Clorgyline

(D) Iproniazid

Answer: (A) Selegiline
Explanation: Selegiline is a selective MAO-B inhibitor used in the management of Parkinson’s disease.

39. Which of the following is heparin antagonist?

(A) Potassium sulphate

(B) Protamine sulfate

(D) Alteplase

Answer: (B) Protamine sulfate
Explanation: Protamine sulfate is used to reverse the anticoagulant effects of heparin.

40. Grey baby syndrome is associated with:

(A) Chlorpromazine

(B) Chlorcyclizine

(D) Chloramphenicol

Answer: (D) Chloramphenicol
Explanation: Grey baby syndrome is a serious condition that can occur in newborns due to the inability to metabolize chloramphenicol.

41. The chemical group of Glycyrrhizin is:

(A) Alkaloid

(B) Glycoside

(D) Sesquiterpene

Answer: (C) Saponin
Explanation: Glycyrrhizin, found in licorice, is a saponin glycoside with anti-inflammatory and antiviral properties.

42. World diabetes day:

(A) 14^th of November

(B) 4^th of November

(D) 14^th of July

Answer: (A) 14th of November
Explanation: World Diabetes Day is celebrated on November 14th to raise awareness about diabetes globally.

43. BCG vaccination gives protection against:

(A) Mumps

(B) Rubella

(D) TB

Answer: (D) TB
Explanation: The Bacillus Calmette–Guérin (BCG) vaccine is primarily used against tuberculosis (TB).

44. Curved, warty trichomes are present in:

(A) Datura

(B) Senna

(D) Digitalis

Answer: (A) Datura
Explanation: Curved warty trichomes are characteristic of the Datura plant.

45. Aretemisinin is used as:

(A) Antelminthic

(B) Antimalarial

(D) Aperient

Answer: (B) Antimalarial
Explanation: Artemisinin is a potent antimalarial drug, especially effective against Plasmodium falciparum.

46. Which of the following is a peripherally actingmuscle relaxant?

(A) Baclofen

(B) Methocarbamol

(D) Tizanidine

Answer: (C) Dantrolene
Explanation: Dantrolene is a peripherally acting muscle relaxant that acts by inhibiting calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, primarily used in the treatment of malignant hyperthermia.

47. Example for Alpha Glucosidase Inhibitor:

(A) Miglitol

(B) Nateglinide

(D) Glyburide

Answer: (A) Miglitol
Explanation: Miglitol is an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor used to reduce postprandial blood glucose levels in patients with type 2 diabetes.

48. Which of the following is called Indian Gum?

(A) Colophony

(B) Tragacanth

(D) Acacia

Answer: (D) Acacia
Explanation: Acacia gum, also known as Indian gum, is used as a thickening agent, emulsifier, and stabilizer in pharmaceuticals and food.

49. Which of the following emulsifiers have highest HLB value?

(A) PEG 400

(B) Cetrimide

(D) Span 80

Answer: (C) Sodium Lauryl Sulfate
Explanation: Sodium Lauryl Sulfate has a high Hydrophilic-Lipophilic Balance (HLB), making it an effective emulsifying agent for oil-in-water emulsions.

50. Example for aromatase inhibitor:

(A) Letrozole

(B) Fosfestrol

(D) Tamoxifen

Answer: (A) Letrozole
Explanation: Letrozole is an aromatase inhibitor used in the treatment of hormone receptor-positive breast cancer.

51. Chance of Ototoxicity is more with:

(A) Acetazolamide

(B) Spironolactone

(D) Frusemide

Answer: (D) Frusemide
Explanation: Frusemide (Furosemide) is a loop diuretic that can cause ototoxicity, particularly when administered in high doses or in combination with other ototoxic drugs.

52. Which of the following is an essential amino acid?

(A) Alanine

(B) Valine

(D) Arginine

Answer: (B) Valine
Explanation: Valine is an essential amino acid, meaning it must be obtained through diet as the body cannot synthesize it.

53. Which of the following schedule deals with regulations and requirements for establishing and running a pharmacy?

(A) Schedule M

(B) Schedule N

(D) Schedule F

Answer: (B) Schedule N
Explanation: Schedule N under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act specifies the requirements for pharmacies regarding space, facilities, and other operational aspects.

54. License in Form 10 is issued for the import of:

(A) Drugs for test or analysis

(B) All new drugs

(D) Cosmetics

Answer: (A) Drugs for test or analysis
Explanation: Form 10 is issued for the import of drugs required for testing or analysis.

55. Which class of drugs can be manufactured under loan license in Form 25A?

(A) Drugs specified in Schedule X

(B) Drugs specified in Schedule C and C1

(D) Drugs other than those specified in schedule C, C1 and X

Answer: (C) Drugs other than those specified in Schedule X
Explanation: Form 25A allows the manufacturing of drugs that do not fall under the restrictions of Schedule X.

56. Ideal temperature for storage of freeze -dried BCG vaccine is:

(A) Between 2 and 8°C

(B) Below minus 2°C

(D) Below 0°C

Answer: (A) Between 2 and 8°C
Explanation: Freeze-dried BCG vaccine is stored between 2°C and 8°C to maintain its potency.

57. Which of the following is a first line anti-tubercular drug?

(A) PAS

(B) Pyrazinamide

(D) Thiacetazone

Answer: (B) Pyrazinamide
Explanation: Pyrazinamide is one of the first-line drugs used in the treatment of tuberculosis.

58. Equivalent weight of Potassium permanganate in alkaline medium is:

(A) 316

(B) 31.6

(D) 5.27

Answer: (B) 31.6
Explanation: The equivalent weight of KMnO₄ in an alkaline medium is 31.6 grams per mole.

59. Which of the following is an inhalation anesthetic?

(A) N₂O

(B) NO₂

(D) HNO₂

Answer: (A) N₂O
Explanation: Nitrous oxide (N₂O), also known as laughing gas, is commonly used as an inhalation anesthetic.

60. Fomepizole acts by inhibiting:

(A) Choline esterase

(B) Lactate dehydrogenase

(D) Alcohol dehydrogenase

Answer: (D) Alcohol dehydrogenase
Explanation: Fomepizole is an antidote for methanol and ethylene glycol poisoning, and it works by inhibiting alcohol dehydrogenase, preventing the formation of toxic metabolites.

61. Universal antidote contains:

(A) Activated charcoal, Tannic acid and Magnesium Oxide

(B) Activated charcoal, Tartaric and Magnesium Oxide

(D) Activated charcoal, Tannic and Magnesium Trisilicate

Answer: (A) Activated charcoal, Tannic acid, and Magnesium oxide
Explanation: The universal antidote consists of activated charcoal (for adsorption), tannic acid (for precipitating alkaloids), and magnesium oxide (as an antacid).

62. Molecular formula of Green vitriol is:

(A) CuSO₄.5H₂O

(B) FeSO₄.7H₂O

(D) Na₂B₄O₇

Answer: (B) FeSO₄·7H₂O
Explanation: Green vitriol refers to hydrated iron(II) sulfate with the formula FeSO₄·7H₂O.

63. Two important uses of Apomorphine are:

(A) Analgesic and anti-tussive

(B) Anti-spasmodic and anti-emetic

(D) As an emetic and in Parkinsonism

Answer: (D) As an emetic and in Parkinsonism
Explanation: Apomorphine is used as an emetic in poisoning cases and as a treatment for Parkinson’s disease to reduce motor symptoms.

64. At isoelectric pH, an amino acid will exist as:

(A) Anion

(B) Cation

(D) None of the above

Answer: (C) Zwitter ion
Explanation: At its isoelectric point, an amino acid exists as a zwitterion, where both positive and negative charges are present but the molecule is neutral overall.

65. The safety of a drug is more, if the therapeutic index is:

(A) Less than one

(B) One

(D) None of the above

Answer: (C) Greater than one
Explanation: A therapeutic index greater than one indicates a safer drug, as there is a wider margin between the effective dose and the toxic dose.

66. Which is called British anti-Lewisite?

(A) Mechlorethamine

(B) Sarin

(D) Dimercaprol

Answer: (D) Dimercaprol
Explanation: Dimercaprol is an antidote for heavy metal poisoning and is known as British anti-Lewisite because it was developed to counteract the effects of Lewisite (a chemical warfare agent).

67. Example for selective α2 adrenergic blocker:

(A) Phentolmine

(B) Yohimbine

(D) Prazosin

Answer: (B) Yohimbine
Explanation: Yohimbine selectively blocks α2 adrenergic receptors and is used for conditions like erectile dysfunction.

68. Example for cardio-selective beta blocker:

(A) Atenolol

(B) Timolol

(D) Pindolol

Answer: (A) Atenolol
Explanation: Atenolol is a cardio-selective beta-1 blocker, primarily used to treat hypertension and heart disease.

69. Which of the following sulfonamide is applied topically?

(A) Sulfamethoxy pyridazine

(B) Sulfacetamide Sodium

(D) Succinyl sulfathiazole

Answer: (B) Sulfacetamide Sodium
Explanation: Sulfacetamide Sodium is a sulfonamide antibiotic applied topically to treat bacterial eye infections.

70. Example for benzodiazepine antagonist:

(A) Flumazenil

(B) Zopiclone

(D) Zolpidem

Answer: (A) Flumazenil
Explanation: Flumazenil is used to reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines in cases of overdose.

71. Allopurinol act by inhibiting the enzyme:

(A) Monoamine oxidase

(B) Aldehyde dehydrogenase

(D) Superoxide dismutase

Answer: (C) Xanthine oxidase
Explanation: Allopurinol is used to treat gout and works by inhibiting xanthine oxidase, an enzyme involved in uric acid formation.

72. How much of 10% KCl solution is required to prepare one Liter of 4% solution?

(A) 40 ml

(B) 50 ml

(D) 400 ml

Answer: (D) 400 ml
Explanation: To dilute 10% KCl to a 4% solution, 400 ml of the 10% solution is required to prepare 1 liter of 4% solution.

73. Eugenol is a chief constituent in:

(A) Fennel

(B) Clove

(D) Coriander

Answer: (B) Clove
Explanation: Eugenol is the primary component of clove oil, known for its analgesic and antiseptic properties.

74. Which test is best suited for the identification of Anthraquinone C-glycosides?

(A) Borntrager’s test

(B) Keller Killiani test

(D) Modified Borntrager’s test

Answer: (D) Modified Borntrager’s test
Explanation: The Modified Borntrager’s test is used to identify anthraquinone C-glycosides in herbal samples.

75. When Klunge’s test was conducted with a sample of aloes, a wine red color was obtained. The sample may be:

(A) Socotrine aloes

(B) Zanzibar aloes

(D) Cape aloes

Answer: (D) Cape aloes
Explanation: The wine red color in Klunge’s test indicates the presence of anthraquinone glycosides, characteristic of Cape aloes.

76. Which of the following drug prevent mast cell degranulation?

(A) Sodium cromoglycate

(B) Di sodium EDTA

(D) Sodium Pentothal

Answer: (A) Sodium cromoglycate
Explanation: Sodium cromoglycate stabilizes mast cells, preventing them from releasing histamine and other inflammatory mediators.

77. Which of the following is an analeptic drug?

(A) Nicotinic acid

(B) Nicorandil

(D) Nikethamide

Answer: (D) Nikethamide
Explanation: Nikethamide is a respiratory stimulant (analeptic) used in emergency situations for respiratory depression.

78. Gum hyperplasia is associated with long term use of:

(A) Phenylbutazone

(B) Phenytoin

(D) Phenobarbitone

Answer: (B) Phenytoin
Explanation: Phenytoin, an anti-epileptic drug, can cause gingival hyperplasia (gum overgrowth) as a side effect.

79. Which class of drugs is associated with ‘cheese reaction’?

(A) ACE inhibitors

(B) COX inhibitors

(D) COMT inhibitors

Answer: (C) MAO inhibitors
Explanation: MAO inhibitors (e.g., phenelzine) can cause hypertensive crises when combined with tyramine-containing foods, leading to the so-called “cheese reaction.”

80. Which of the following drug is used to reduce the risk of cyclophosphamide induced hemorrhagic cystitis?

(A) Mesna

(B) BAL

(D) 5-FU

Answer: (A) Mesna
Explanation: Mesna is administered alongside cyclophosphamide to protect the bladder from toxic metabolites that can cause hemorrhagic cystitis.

81. Which of the following local anesthetic is long acting?

(A) Tetracaine

(B) Procaine

(D) Chloroprocine

Answer: (A) Tetracaine
Explanation: Tetracaine is a long-acting local anesthetic commonly used in spinal and topical anesthesia.

82. Example for peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor

(A) Probenecid

(B) Benserazide

(D) Zotepine

Answer: (B) Benserazide
Explanation: Benserazide is used in combination with levodopa to inhibit peripheral breakdown, enhancing the drug’s effectiveness in Parkinson’s disease.

83. Example for atypical antidepressant:

(A) Fluoxetine

(B) Amoxapine

(D) Trazodone

Answer: (D) Trazodone
Explanation: Trazodone is classified as an atypical antidepressant, commonly used to treat major depressive disorder and insomnia.

84. Which family cinnamon belongs to?

(A) Leguminosae

(B) Lauraceae

(D) Rubiaceae

Answer: (B) Lauraceae
Explanation: Cinnamon belongs to the Lauraceae family, which also includes trees like bay laurel and camphor.

85. Which of the following is not an aminoglycoside antibiotic?

(A) Streptomycin

(B) Gentamicin

(D) Mithramycin

Answer: (D) Mithramycin
Explanation: Mithramycin is an antineoplastic antibiotic, not an aminoglycoside. Aminoglycosides include drugs like gentamicin and streptomycin.

86. The alkaloid colchicine is an:

(A) Anti cancer drug

(B) Anthelmintic drug

(D) Anti Parkinsonian drug

Answer: (C) Anti-gout drug
Explanation: Colchicine is used to treat gout by reducing inflammation caused by uric acid crystals.

87. Barbiturates acts through:

(A) Glutamate receptors

(B) Nicotinic receptors

(D) GABA receptors

Answer: (D) GABA receptors
Explanation: Barbiturates enhance the action of GABA, the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain, producing a sedative effect.

88. Ondansetron act by antagonizing:

(A) D2 receptor

(B) H2 receptors

(D) H1 receptors

Answer: (C) 5HT₃ receptors
Explanation: Ondansetron is a selective 5HT₃ receptor antagonist used to prevent nausea and vomiting, especially after chemotherapy.

89. The new WHO formula for ORS does not contain

(A) Sodium chloride

(B) Potassium chloride

(D) Calcium chloride

Answer: (D) Calcium chloride
Explanation: The new WHO formula for oral rehydration solution (ORS) includes sodium chloride, potassium chloride, sodium citrate, and glucose, but not calcium chloride.

90. Composition of Cotrimoxazole is:

(A) Trimethoprim : Sulphamethoxazole = 1 : 2

(B) Trimethoprim : Sulphamethoxazole = 5 : 1

(D) Trimethoprim : Sulphadiazine = 1 : 5

Answer: (C) Sulphamethoxazole = 5:1
Explanation: Cotrimoxazole is a combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim in a 5:1 ratio, used to treat a variety of bacterial infections.

91. Which is a selective estrogen receptor down regulator?

(A) Flutamide

(B) Letrozole

(D) Finasteride

Answer: (C) Fulvestrant
Explanation: Fulvestrant is used in hormone receptor-positive breast cancer and works by down-regulating estrogen receptors.

92. Vincristine is a ––––––––– type of alkaloid.

(A) Indole

(B) Phenanthrene

(D) Triterpenoid

Answer: (A) Indole
Explanation: Vincristine is an indole alkaloid derived from the Madagascar periwinkle plant and is used in chemotherapy for treating various cancers.

93. Formula for primary emulsion of castor emulsion is:

(A) Oil : water: gum = 4 : 3 : 1

(B) Oil : water: gum = 3 : 2 : 1

(D) Oil : water: gum = 4 : 2 :1

Answer: (A) Oil:water = 4:3:1
Explanation: The 4:3:1 ratio is the standard formula used to prepare a primary emulsion for castor oil emulsions.

94. Ideal temperature to store insulin is:

(A) 0°C -2°C

(B) 0°C

(D) 20°C -40°C

Answer: (C) 2°C – 8°C
Explanation: Insulin must be stored between 2°C and 8°C to maintain its efficacy and prevent degradation.

95. Omeprazole has to be taken:

(A) Along with food

(B) One hour before food

(D) With milk

Answer: (B) One hour before food
Explanation: Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, should be taken one hour before meals to allow for optimal suppression of stomach acid production.

96. Example for HMG COA reductase inhibitor:

(A) Fluvastatin

(B) Fluoxetine

(D) Flucinolone

Answer: (A) Fluvastatin
Explanation: Fluvastatin is an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor, commonly known as a statin, used to lower cholesterol levels.

97. Which of the following disease is waterborne?

(A) Yellow fever

(B) Cholera

(D) Influenza

Answer: (B) Cholera
Explanation: Cholera is a waterborne disease caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae, which leads to severe diarrhea and dehydration.

98. Calorific value of carbohydrate is approximately equal to:

(A) 4 Kcal/g

(B) 0.4 Kcal/g

(D) 9 Kcal/g

Answer: (A) 4 Kcal/g
Explanation: Carbohydrates provide approximately 4 kcal of energy per gram when metabolized.

99. Which of the following is a non viral disease?

(A) Rabies

(B) Leprosy

(D) Poliomyelitis

Answer: (B) Leprosy
Explanation: Leprosy is caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium leprae, making it a bacterial, non-viral disease.

100. A drug combined with cyclophosphamide to reduce the risk of haemorrhagic cystitis is:

(A) Mesna

(B) 5–FU

(D) Pyridoxine

Answer: (A) Mesna
Explanation: Mesna is administered to reduce the risk of hemorrhagic cystitis by neutralizing toxic metabolites of cyclophosphamide.

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