Pharma Quizzes for Competitive Exam

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Pharma Quizzes for Competitive Exam
Pharma Quizzes for Competitive Exam

Pharma Quizzes for Competitive Exam

Welcome to Pharma Quizzes for Competitive Exam – your ultimate destination for mastering pharmacy-related subjects through online quizzes. Whether you’re preparing for B Pharma or D Pharma exams, GPAT, NIPER, Drug Inspector exams, or various state and central pharmacist exams, we’ve got you covered! Our platform offers a wide range of quizzes tailored to the syllabus of these competitive exams. Best of all, new quizzes are added weekly, ensuring you always have fresh content to practice. And the best part? It’s completely free! Start your preparation today with our up-to-date quizzes and boost your confidence for exam day!

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Medicinal Chemistry-I Unit -1 25 Important MCQs

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1 / 25

1. (+) Sotalol is beta blocker while (-) Sotalol is

a. Antiarrhythmic

b. beta blocker

c. Analgesic

d. Antidepressant

2 / 25

2. Which of the following enzymes is not involved in catalysing a Phase I metabolic reaction?

a. Esterases

b. Flavin-containing monooxygenases

c. Glucuronyltransferase

d. Monoamine oxidases

Explanation: Flavin-containing monooxygenases catalyse Phase I oxidation reactions. Monoamine oxidase catalyses the formation of aldehydes from primary amines. Esterases catalyse the hydrolysis of esters.
Glucuronyltransferase catalyses the transfer or attachment of a sugar moiety onto a polar functional group

3 / 25

3. The most significant protein Involved In binding with a drug is

a. Globulin

b. Lipoprotein

c. Glycoprotein

d. Albumin

Explanation: The order of binding of drugs to various protein is Albumin > Glycoprotein >Lipoprotein > Globulin

4 / 25

4. Which one of the following factor related to protein-drug binding is not related to drug Interactions with the binding site?

a. Competition between the drug and the binding site

b. Inter subject variation

c. Allosteric changes in a protein molecule

d. Competition between drugs and normal body constituents

Explanation : Competition between the drug and the binding site, competition between drugs and normal body constituents, allosteric changes in protein molecule these factors are related to drug interactions. Inter subject variation is a patient-related factor.

5 / 25

5. Functional groups of same valance and ring equivalents are known as

a. Non- Classical Bioisosteres

b. Enantiomers

c. Geometrical isomers

d. Classical Bioisosteres

6 / 25

6. Which of the following statements best describes structure-activity relationships (SAR)?

a. The study of the physicochemical properties that are important to the absorption of a drug into the blood supply.

b. The study of the structural features of a drug that are important to its chemical stability.

c. The study of which functional groups are important to the chemical reactivity of the drug.

d. The study of the structural features of a drug that are important to its biological activity.

7 / 25

7. Plasma proteins bound with drugs by formation of

a. Hydrophobc bonding

b. Hydrogen bonding

c. Vander-waal’s force / Ionic interaction

d. All of the above

8 / 25

8. Which of the following statements is the closest description of Phase I metabolism?

a. Reactions which add a polar functional group to a drug.

b. Reactions which add a polar molecule to a functional group already present on a drug or one of its metabolites.

c. Reactions which occur in the blood supply.

d. Reactions which occur in the gut wall.

Explanation: Some phase I metabolic reactions can occur in the blood supply or the gut wall, but they do not take place exclusively at either of these sites. Most phase I reactions take place in the liver.

9 / 25

9. Which of the following is not primary but derived pharmacokinetic parameter

a. Clearance

b. Bioavilability

c. Plasma half life

d. Distribution volume

10 / 25

10. Which ester of Chloramphenicol is prepared to mask Its bitter taste?

a. Hydrochloride

b. Salicylate

c. Sodium

d. Palmitate

Explanation: esterification with palmetic acid decreases solubility in saliva while salicylic acid increases solubility

11 / 25

11. For most of the chiral drugs, which enantiomer is more active?

a. S isomer

b. Always their racemic mixture

c. It can’t be generalised

d. R isomer

12 / 25

12. D-Asparagine has sweet taste while L-Asparagine has…….. Taste

a. Tasteless

b. Bitter

c. Sour

d. Sweet

13 / 25

13. Methyl Prednisolone and Phenobarbitone are water Insoluble but its which salt is water soluble?

a. Hydrochloride

b. Palmitate

c. Sodium

d. Salicylate

14 / 25

14. The most abundant plasma protein Is?

a. Lipoprotein

b. Albumin (Human serum albumin)

c. Globulin

d. Glycoprotein

15 / 25

15. Which of the following characteristics is unfavorable to oral activity?

a. stability to stomach acids

b. solubility in both aqueous and fatty environments

c. stability to digestive enzymes

d. susceptibility to metabolic enzymes

Explanation: If an orally administered drug is rapidly metabolised, its lifetime will be short and this will be unfavorable to activity. Overcome by prodrugs.

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16. Only unbound or free drug is capable of being eliminated.

a. Drugs never eliminated

b. False

c. Cant say about this

d. True

Explanation: Because the drug- protein complex cannot penetrate into the metabolizing organ. The large molecular size of the complex also prevents it from getting filtered through the glomerulus

17 / 25

17. Which of the following reactions is not a Phase I metabolic transformation?

a. oxidation of alkyl groups

b. reduction of ketones

c. conjugation to alcohols

d. ester hydrolysis

Explanation: Reactions which introduce, modify or reveal functional groups are phase I metabolic reactions. Conjugation reactions involve the attachment of a polar molecule to a polar functional group and are phase II metabolic reactions.

18 / 25

18. What is common in Warfarin, propranolol, ketamine and amphetamine

a. None

b. S configuration is more active than R configuration

c. R configuration is more active than S configuration

d. both

19 / 25

19. Which one of the following factors related to protein-drug binding is not related to drugs?

a. The affinity of the drug for binding

b. Physicochemical characteristics of a drug

c. Number of binding sites on the binding agent

d. The concentration of the drug in the body

20 / 25

20. Chelating agent Dimercaprol is used in the treatment of

a. Arsenic poisoning

b. Vanadium poisoning

c. All of above

d. Lead poisoning

21 / 25

21. Absorption of Tetracycline is reduced in the presence of milk because of

a. Lonization

b. Chelation

c. Protein binding

d. Hydrogen bonding

22 / 25

22. In Lead and vanadium poisoning, which chelating agent Is used as an antidote?

a. Disodium EDTA

b. Haemoglobin

c. Dimercaprol

d. Cyanocobalamine

23 / 25

23. Which of the following factors for protein drug binding is a drug Interaction factor?

a. Physicochemical characteristics of a drug

b. Physicochemical characteristics of the protein or binding agent

c. Age

d. Competition between drugs for the binding site

24 / 25

24. Which of the following statements is the closest description of Phase II metabolism?

a. Reactions which add a polar functional group to a drug.

b. Reactions which occur in the blood supply.

c. Reactions which occur in the gut wall.

d. Reactions which add a polar molecule to a functional group already present on a drug or one of its metabolites.

25 / 25

25. Which of the intermolecular bonding interactions below are possible for an alcohol?

a. van der Waals interactions only

b. Ionic bonding only

c. Both hydrogen bonding and ionic bonding

d. Hydrogen bonding only

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Pharmaceutical Biochemistry Quiz 1

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1 / 36

1. Q. Actin and myosin are the basic proteins involved in contractile machinery of our body to which type of proteins do they belong?

1. Globular proteins

2. Fibrous Proteins

3. Both a and b

4. None of these

2 / 36

2. Q. Which of the following carbohydrate can not be hydrolysed?

1. None of these

2. Oligosaccharide

3. Polysaccharide

4. Monosaccharide

3 / 36

3. Q. Lipids are soluble in which of the following :

1. All solvents

2. Ether

3. Not in any of the above

4. Water

4 / 36

4. Q. The covalent bond between two monosaccharide subunits is called:

1. Phosphodiester bond

2. Ionic bond

3. Peptide bond

4. Glycosidic Bond

5 / 36

5. Q. lf two monosaccharide differ in configuration around a single carbon atom, they are known as

1. None

2. Diclomers

3. Bimers

4. Epimers

6 / 36

6. Q. Which is a reducing sugar?

1. Galactose

2. Gluconic acid

3. Sucrose

4. β-methyl galactosidase

A reducing sugar is any sugar that is capable of acting as a reducing agent. In an alkaline solution, a reducing sugar forms some aldehyde or ketone, which allows it to act as a reducing agent, for example in Benedict's reaction. In such a reaction, the sugar becomes a carboxylic acid.

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7. Q. Which of the following statement is incorrect for fats containing unsaturated fatty acid?

1. Their specific gravity is less than 1

2. They are usually solid at room temperature

3. They contain double bond

4. They are lighter than water

8 / 36

8. Q. Which structure of protein gives information about number and sequence of amino acids in it?

1. Quaternary structure

2. Secondary structure

3. Primary structure

4. Tertiary structure

The linear sequence of amino acids within a protein is considered the primary structure of the protein.

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9. Q. The naturally occurring form of amino acid in proteins

1. None of these

2. Both L and D amino acids

3. L-amino acids only

4. D-amino acids only

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10. Q. Which of the following is not a macromolecule?

1. lipid

2. protein

3. starch

4. e) DNA

5. nucleotide

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11. Q. Lipids …

1. Include fats that are broken down into 3 fatty acid molecule and one glycerol molecules

2. Serve as food reserves in many organisms

3. Include cartilage and chitin

4. Are composed of monosaccharides

12 / 36

12. Q. The branch of biology which deals with the study of chemical compounds and the chemical processes in the living organisms is called:

1. Biochemistry

2. Molocular biology

3. Both a and b

4. Chemistry

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13. Q. Which one of the following compounds forms the 'backbone' of fats and oils?

1. Palmitic acid

2. An amino alcohol

3. Glucose

4. Glycerol

Fats and oils belong to the family of compounds called triacylglycerols. This name gives us a clue as to the identity of a key structural component of these compounds: glycerol.

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14. Q. Which of the following carbohydrates is not a disaccharide?

1. Galactose

2. Sucrose

3. Maltose

4. Lactose

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15. Q. Which of the following would most likely qualify as a macromolecule?

1. Cellulose

2. Protein

3. DNA or RNA

4. All of the above

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16. Q. A compound produced as a result of a chemical reaction of an alcohol with an acid in which water molecule is released is called:

1. Monosaccharide

2. Neutral lipid

3. Fatty acid

4. Nucleic acid

17 / 36

17. Q. Which one is a fibrous protein?

1. Hordein

2. Globulin

3. Collagen

4. Haemoglobin

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18. Q. Glucose is a .....

1. Ketose hexose sugar

2. Pyranose pentose sugar

3. Furanose pentose sugar

4. Aldose hexose sugar

19 / 36

19. Q. A complex substance which on hydrolysis yields polyhydroxy aldehyde or ketone subunits is called:

1. Protein

2. Carotein

3. Carbohydrate

4. Lipid

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20. Q. A macromolecule is composed of smaller units called:

1. isotopes

2. polymers

3. isomers

4. monomers

21 / 36

21. Q. A polypeptide containing disulfide bonds is likely to be rich in which of the following amino acids?

1. Valine

2. Cysteine

3. Glycine

4. Alanine

22 / 36

22. Q. ____________ is a basic unit of a carbohydrate.

1. Monosaccharide

2. Glycerol

3. Nucleotide

4. Amino Acids

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23. Q. Reactions in which simple substances are combined to form complex substances are called:

1. Anabolic reactions

2. Metabolic reactions

3. None of these

4. Catabolic reactions

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24. Q. Out of the following, cholesterol does not serve as a precursor for which compounds?

1. Bile pigments

2. Vitamin D

3. Bile salts

4. Sex hormones

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25. Q. A functional protein is

1. Enzyme

2. Vitamin

3. Ossein

4. Collagen

26 / 36

26. Q. What type of LIPIDS are found in all biological membranes?

1. Waxes

2. Triglycerides

3. Diglycerides

4. Phospholipids

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27. Q. Unfolding of a protein can be termed as _________

1. Oxidation

2. Reduction

3. Renaturation

4. Denaturation

Explanation: The proteins lose their quaternary, tertiary, secondary structure and return to its native state by denaturation process.

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28. Q. Amino acids are the building blocks for

1. Steroids

2. Lipids

3. Carbohydrates

4. Proteins

29 / 36

29. Q. Which of the statement is not true for compounds like glycoprotein and glycolipids?

1. They are components of biological membranes.

2. Both are produced and secreted by endoplasmic reticulum

3. Both have role in the extra cellular matrix of animals and bacterial cell wall

4. They are conjugated molecules of carbohydrates

30 / 36

30. Q. Starch cellulose and glaycogen yield ________ on complete hydrolysis.

1. Glucose

2. Sucrose

3. Fructose

4. Maltose

31 / 36

31. Q. Which of the following are the most diverse molecules of a cell?

1. Lipids

2. Mineral salts

3. Carbohydrates

4. Proteins

32 / 36

32. Q. Antibodies play important role against microorganisms and other pathogens to which type of proteins do they belong?

1. Globular proteins

2. Fibrous Proteins

3. Both a and b

4. None of these

33 / 36

33. Q. A bond formed by linkage between -OH of carboxyl group of one amino acid and H of amino group of another amino acid which releases water is called

1. Glycosidic bond

2. Peptide bond

3. Phosphodiester linkage

4. Hydrogen bond

34 / 36

34. Q. Which statement about the characteristics of biomolecules?

1. All of the above

2. All have specific shapes & functional groups

3. Most of them are organic compounds

4. Structural & functional specification of a cell is defined by biomolecules

35 / 36

35. Q. Nitrogen is a component of ......

1. Lipids

2. Proteins

3. Polyphosphates

4. Carbohydrates

36 / 36

36. Q. Hemoglobin molecule exhibits which structural organization of proteins

1. Secondary structure

2. Tertiary structure

3. Primary structure

4. Quaternary structure

The quaternary structure of a protein is the association of several protein chains or subunits into a closely packed arrangement.

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Herbal Drug Technology Quiz 1

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1 / 52

1. The oldest repositories of human knowledge is______ .

1. None of these

2. Atharvaveda (4200-5000 BC)

3. Rig-Veda (4500-4600 BC)

4. Ayurveda (5000-5400 BC)

2 / 52

2. Rodenticides is-

1. Tetradifon

2. Sulfhuric acid

3. Warfarin

4. DDT

3 / 52

3. Which of the following Nutraceutical is used in the treatment of cancer

1. Green tea

2. Ginseng

3. All

4. Garlic

4 / 52

4. Phytochemicals are of……. types

1. One

2. Three

3. Seven

4. Five

5 / 52

5. The members of the D.T.A.B. (Drugs Technical Advisory Board) hold the office for a period of

1. Three Year

2. Four Year

3. One Year

4. Two Year

6 / 52

6. Siderophores are-

1. None

2. Microbial iron deficiency compounds

3. Both a and b

4. Microbial iron Chelating compounds

7 / 52

7. Biochemical pesticides are

1. Bio- pesticides

2. Microbial pesticides

3. Antibiotics

4. All of the above

8 / 52

8. Nutraceutical products are divided into…………… categories

1. Two

2. One

3. Three

4. Four

9 / 52

9. Who said “Let food is your medicine and medicine is your food”

1. Charaka

2. Hippocrates

3. Galen

4. Agatsya

10 / 52

10. Who gave the word "Pharmacognosy" ?

1. Both a and b

2. Bentham in 1862

3. Schmidt in 1811

4. C.A. Seydler in 1815

The term Pharmacognosy was first introduced by the Austrian physician Schmidt in 1811 and then in 1815 by Seydler in a work titled Analecta Pharmacognostica.

11 / 52

11. Taking garlic along with medications used for HIV/AIDS might __________ effectiveness -

1. Decrease

2. Increase

3. Nothing will happen

4. Random

12 / 52

12. Who is known as Father of Medicine ?

1. Aristotle(384-322B.C)

2. Dioscorides(40-80A.D)

3. Hippocrates(460-360B.C)

4. Theophrastus(370-287B.C)

13 / 52

13. Which of the following uses management practices that are intended to “restore, maintain and enhance ecological harmony.”

1. Integrated pest control

2. None of these

3. Biodynamic agriculture

4. Pest control

14 / 52

14. According to Ayurveda concept “Satwa” means

1. Perceptory Organs

2. Mind

3. Soul

4. Body

15 / 52

15. Full form of MPP is

1. Medicinal Product Processing

2. Modern Products Processing

3. None of them

4. Middle Procurement Product

16 / 52

16. Stramonium leaves gathered in the-

1. Afternoon

2. Midnight

3. Morning

4. Evening

17 / 52

17. “Kumari” is common name for

1. Aloe

2. Rhubarb

3. Senna

4. None of them

18 / 52

18. Omega-3 fatty acid is useful in

1. Lower the inflammation

2. All

3. Cause vasodilation

4. Lower platelet aggregation

19 / 52

19. The term organic farming was coined by-

1. Adolf Jennifer

2. Vivekananda

3. Lord Northbourne

4. Charles Darwin

20 / 52

20. The method which involves the mashing/pounding of raw materials to release the juice is

1. Svarasa

2. None

3. Kalka

4. Both a and b

21 / 52

21. According to Ayurveda PITA (Bile) is responsible for

1. Lubrication of various points of friction

2. Providing the static energy for holding body tissue together

3. Transmitting sense impression to the mind

4. All digestive and metabolic activities

22 / 52

22. Herbicides is -

1. 2,4 dichilorophenoxyacetic acid

2. Warfarin

3. Sulfhuric acid

4. DDT

23 / 52

23. Alfalafa is useful in

1. Help in digestion

2. None

3. Reduce weight

4. Prevent cancer

24 / 52

24. Cinchona and Tulsi belongs to the family-

1. None of these

2. Rubiaceae and Lamiaceae

3. Apocynaceae and Rutaceae

4. Rubiaceae and Labiatae

25 / 52

25. Garlic along might _______ the effectiveness of warfarin-

1. Random

2. Increase

3. Decrease

4. Nothing will happen

26 / 52

26. Ginkgo thins the blood and decrease its ability to form-

1. Plasma

2. RBC

3. WBC

4. Clot

27 / 52

27. Cephalosporin is obtained from-

1. None of these

2. Cephalosporium acreminium

3. Streptomyces lenjimariesis

4. Dictyopteris zonaroides

28 / 52

28. Advantages of biopesticides are

1. Less toxic

2. All

3. Natural

4. Effective in small concentration

29 / 52

29. Organic farming means

1. All

2. Used organic fertilizers

3. To optimize productivity

4. Not to use pesticides

30 / 52

30. Another name of fenugreek is

1. Saffron

2. Methi

3. Garlic

4. None

31 / 52

31. In China, Mao Zedong reintroduced Traditional Chinese Medicine, which relied heavily on herbalism, into the health care system in-

1. 1940

2. 1950

3. 1959

4. 1949

32 / 52

32. St John's wort along with aminolevulinic acid might increase the chances of-

1. Acidity

2. Random

3. Emetic action

4. Sunburn

33 / 52

33. Phytosterols are useful in

1. Improve serum lipid profile

2. Lower LDL levels

3. Inhibit absorption of cholesterol

4. All

34 / 52

34. Siddha is extensively practiced in which part of India.

1. All of these

2. Northern parts

3. Western parts

4. Southern parts

35 / 52

35. People taking antidepressant such as monoamine oxidase inhibitors should not take food containing tyramine as it produce crisis of

1. Hypertensive

2. All

3. Hyperactive

4. Depressive

36 / 52

36. Taking hydrochlorothiazide along with ginkgo might-

1. Can not Say

2. No Change on Blood pressure

3. Decrease the blood pressure

4. Increase blood pressure

37 / 52

37. The Ebers Papyus (c. 1550 BC) from ancient Egypt has a prescription of ________ applied topically for inflammation.

1. Tobacco

2. Tea

3. Cannabis Sativa (marijuana)

4. Alovera

38 / 52

38. Spirulina is another name of-

1. Bacteria

2. Cynobacterium

3. Alkaloids

4. Fungi

39 / 52

39. The first herbal to be published in English was the anonymous Grete Herball of

1. 1947

2. 1612

3. 1525

4. 1972

40 / 52

40. The earliest known Greek herbals come from Theophrastus of Eresos who in the ________ wrote in Greek Historia Plantarum.

1. 4th century (350 BC)

2. 1981

3. 456

4. 12 th B. C.

41 / 52

41. The Chinese Pharmacopoeia is how much old?

1. 4000 years

2. 5000 years

3. 2000 years

4. 3000 years

42 / 52

42. Which is a broad- based approach that integrates practices for economic control of pests.

1. Integrated pest control

2. None of these

3. Integrated fungal control

4. General pest control

Integrated pest management (IPM), also known as integrated pest control (IPC)

43 / 52

43. The largest global market for medicinal and aromatic plants is

1. India

2. All

3. Japan

4. China

44 / 52

44. Processing of herbal raw materials include

1. Primary processing

2. Drawing

3. Specific processing

4. All

45 / 52

45. St John's wort along with alprazolam might _________ the effectiveness of alprazolam

1. Nothing will happen

2. Increase

3. Decrease

4. Random

46 / 52

46. ________ represents the fluids (extra cellular and intracellular parts) of the human body.

1. Pittas

2. Rasa

3. Vata

4. Kapha

47 / 52

47. The Siddha science is a traditional treatment system generated from ________ culture

1. Tamil

2. Maharashtra

3. Kerala

4. Indian

48 / 52

48. Which of the following is natural occurring antioxidant.

1. Vitamin C

2. Vitamin E

3. All

4. Alpha lipoic acid

49 / 52

49. Taking garlic along with birth control pills might-

1. Increase effectiveness of birth control pills

2. Random

3. Decrease effectiveness of birth control pills

4. Nothing will happen

50 / 52

50. What is fullform of PIP?

1. Plant incorporated pollutant

2. None

3. Plant incorporated pesticides

4. Plant incorporated protectants

51 / 52

51. ________ which become the standard medical reference work of the Arab World.

1. The Canon of Medicine

2. Siddha

3. Ayurveda

4. Galenicals

52 / 52

52. Rudolf Steiner initially developed in ____, it was the first of the organic agriculture movements.

1. 1947

2. 1924

3. 1753

4. 1630

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The average score is 38%

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Pharmaceutical Organic Chemistry Quiz 1

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1 / 25

1. The Compounds CH3CH2OCH2CH3 and CH3OCH2CH2CH3 are

1. Functional isomers

2. Chain Isomers

3. Position isomers

4. Metamers

Explanation: Metamers Compounds having the same molecular formula but different alkyl groups on either side of the functional group.

2 / 25

Which of (a)-(d) is the correct IUPAC name of the following compound?

1. 4-methylhex-3-ene

2. 3-methylhex-3-ene

3. 2-ethylpent-2-ene

4. 4-ethylpent-3-ene

3 / 25

3. Which of the following is not a type of structural isomerism?

1. Geometric

2. Functional group

3. Chain

4. Position

4 / 25

4. Aliphatic compound is the other name for

1. Alicyclic compounds

2. Ring compounds

3. Closed chain compounds

4. Acyclic compounds

Explanation: open chain compounds or acyclic compounds are otherwise called as aliphatic compounds.
An alicyclic compound contains one or more all-carbon rings which may be either saturated or unsaturated, but do not have aromatic character

5 / 25

Which of the following matches of names and molecules are correct ?

1. B and II, D and I

2. C and III, D and IV

3. none of the above

4. A and II, C and IV

5. A and III, B and IV

6 / 25

How many tautomers can you draw for the following ketone?

1. 3

2. 4

3. 2

4. 1

It envolves alpha hydrogen

7 / 25

7. The substituent in the chain is named by replacing the “ane” in the alkanes by

1. yl

2. ic

3. one

4. ene

Explanation: ene, ic and one are used for representing alkenes, carboxylic acids, and ketones respectively. They called Alkyl groups

8 / 25

8. Organic compounds can be classified even based upon the function groups. Identify the one which is not a functional group?

1. Isocyano

2. Carbonyl

3. Carboxyl

4. Isocyanide

9 / 25

9. Which of the following is not a characteristic of organic compounds

1. They are slightly soluble or insoluble in water

2. They usually have low melting points

3. They always have ionic bonds

4. They always have carbon atoms

10 / 25

10.

Which of the following compounds has the formula C8H18?

1. cyclooctane

2. 2,2,3-trimethlyoctane

3. 2,2,3,3-tetramethylbutane

4. 2-methylhexane

11 / 25

11.

Which of following is the correct IUPAC name of the following compound?

1. 1-carboxypropan-2-ol

2. 2-hydroxybutanoic acid

3. 2-hydroxypropanoic acid

4. 3-hydroxybutanoic acid

12 / 25

12. According to vital force theory

1. Organic compounds can be synthesized by plants

2. Organic compounds cannot be synthesized from inorganic compounds

3. Organic compounds can be synthesized from inorganic compounds

4. Organic compounds can be synthesized by animals

13 / 25

13. The element most and least likely to be present in an organic compounds are

1. Nitrogen & Hydrogen

2. Hydrogen & Silicon

3. Hydrogen & Oxygen

4. Hydrogen & Sulphur

14 / 25

14. An isomer of ethanol is:

1. diethyl ether

2. acetone

3. methanol

4. dimethyl ether

15 / 25

15.

Which of following is the correct IUPAC name of the following compound?

1. 2-chloro-3-methylpent-3-ene

2. 3-methyl-4-chloropent-2-ene

3. 4-chloro-3-methylpent-2-ene

4. 3-methyl-2-chloropent-3-ene

16 / 25

16. Choose the incorrect option regarding Isomerism.

1. They differ in both physical and chemical properties

2. They have the different molecular formula

3. Geometric and optical isomerism are two types of Stereo Isomerism

4. There are two types of Isomerism : Structural and Stereo Isomerism

17 / 25

17.

Look at the displayed formula of an organic compound. What is the name of this compound?

1. Ethanol

2. Ethanoic acid

3. Propanol

4. Propanoic acid

18 / 25

18. Which compound is different from the others?

1. pentan-2-one

2. methyl ethyl ketone

3. methyl propyl ketone

4. 2-pentanone

19 / 25

19. Which among the following is not an example of alicyclic compound?

1. Cyclohexane

2. Tetrahydrofuran

3. Cyclohexene

4. Acetic acid

20 / 25

20.

Which of the following compounds is named correctly according to the IUPAC system of nomenclature?

1. 1,1-dichloro-2-bromoethane

2. 1,1-chloro-2-bromoethane

3. 2-bromo-1-dichloroethane

4. 2-bromo-1,1-dichloroethane

21 / 25

21. One of the major sources of organic compounds is

1. Sea water

2. Atmosphere

3. Coal & natural gases

4. Fermentation

22 / 25

22. Which statement is not a characteristic of a homologous series?

1. Same functional group

2. Same physical properties

3. Same chemical reactions

4. Members differ from one another by CH2

23 / 25

23. Which compound is a positional isomer of 1-chloropentane?

1. CH3CHCH3CH₂CH₂CI

2. CH₂CIC(CH3)3CI

3. CH(CH3)2CHCICH3

4. CH3CH₂CHCH₂CH₂CI

24 / 25

24. If the position of functional group varies in each of its isomer then its is

1. chain isomerism

2. functional group isomerism

3. none of above

4. position isomerism

25 / 25

25. The molecular formula C5H12 contains how many isomeric alkanes?

1. 1

2. 3

3. 2

4. 4

Your score is

The average score is 34%

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Pharmaceutical Quality Assurance Quiz 1

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1 / 25

1. GMP are directed primarily at

a. Ensuring that all products are tested according to specifications.

b. Ensuring that all products are made in accordance with the formula.

c. Preventing cross-contamination only

d. Minimizing risks in production that can not be prevented through testing of finished products

2 / 25

2. Total Quality Management focuses on-

a. None

b. Customer

c. Employee

d. Customer and Employee

3 / 25

3. ICH stands for?

a. Indian Council for harmonization

b. International Council for Harmonization

c. Indian Conference for harmonization

d. International Conference for harmonization

4 / 25

4. Quality is conformance to requirements. Identify the quality guru who said this.

a. Ohno

b. Deming

c. Ishikawa

d. Crosby

5 / 25

5. How can quality be quantified? (Q=Quality, P=Performance, E=Expectations)

a. Q=P+E

b. Q=P-E

c. Q=P*E

d. Q=P/E

Explanation: Mathematically, quality can be quantified as Q=P/E. Here, if Q is greater than 1, the customer has a good feeling about the performance of the product or service.

6 / 25

6. Quality is fitness for use. Identify the quality guru who said this.

a. Juran

b. Deming

c. Taguchi

d. Crosby

7 / 25

7. What is the first step of QA?

a. Material control

b. Development of standards

c. Identification of customer need

d. Servicing

8 / 25

8. A company including its manager has 50 members. TQM philosophy is followed by 40 members only. Did the company properly implement TQM?

a. We cannot comment on TQM implementation

b. Yes, only 25 members were sufficient for TQM implementation

c. No, TQM implementation requires the participation of all members of the company

d. Yes, only 14 members were sufficient for TQM implementation

Explanation: The highest priority of TQM is customer satisfaction. So, all 50 members must participate in TQM implementation.

9 / 25

9. The role of management is to-

a. Provide Resources

b. Define EMS

c. Monitor the Effectiveness

d. All

10 / 25

10. What is TQM?

a. Total Quality Management

b. Total Quality Maintenance

c. Total Quality Managers

d. Total Quality Mitigation

11 / 25

11. The objective of ISO-9000 family of quality management is-

a. Environmental issues

b. Skill enhancement

c. Employee satisfaction

d. Customer satisfaction

12 / 25

12. ISO 14001 gives stress on-

a. All

b. Environmental Protection

c. Prevention rather than detection

d. Plan-Do-Check-Act

13 / 25

13. The guidelines that describe the stability testing of drug substances and drug products are?

a. ICH Q1

b. ICH Q9

c. ICH Q8

d. ICH Q2

14 / 25

14. The lack of proper training to the employees can act as a barrier to TQM implementation

a. True

b. False

15 / 25

15. Arrange the steps of QA in ascending order?

a. Customer needs, material control, design development, process control, marketing

b. Material control, process control, customer need, design development, finished product

c. Customer needs, design development, material control, process control, finished product

d. Material control, servicing, process control, material control, design development

Explanation: Scheme of QA starts with customer need. They have to be converted into the development of a specification, followed by quality and measurement control, material control and convert into the finished product.

16 / 25

16. What is ISO?

a. International Organization for Standard

b. Internal Organization for Standard

c. Indian Organization for Standard

d. None

17 / 25

17. Which of the following option is correct regarding QA and QC?

a. QC is an integral part of QA

b. QA and QC are independent to each other

c. QA is an integral part of QC

d. QC may or may not depend on QA

18 / 25

18. EMS stands for-

a. Equipment management system

b. Engineering management system

c. Employee management system

d. Environmental management system

19 / 25

19. Which ‘pillar of TQM’ is referred to when the study of customer needs is done.

a. Employee Empowerment

b. Continuous Improvement

c. Process Management

d. Customer Focus

Explanation: Customer Focus is one of the pillars of TQM. In customer focus, customer satisfaction remains an organization’s highest priority. The other pillars of TQM are Process Management, Employee Empowerment, and Continuous Improvement.

20 / 25

20. What is QA?

a. It is a corrective tool

b. It is the measurement of degree to which a product satisfies the need

c. Process of identifying defects

d. Any systematic process used to ensure quality in the process

Explanation: QA is a systematic process that ensures the quality of the product and guarantees to the user that the product will be safer and more reliable.

21 / 25

21. Which of the following is for Environment Management?

a. ISO-14000

b. ISO-26000

c. ISO-31000

d. ISO-9000

22 / 25

22. - P-D-C-A stands for-

a. Plan- Do- Check- Act

b. Plan- Do- Correct- Act

c. Process- Do- Correct- Act

d. Process- Do- Chek- Act

23 / 25

23. Validation is an example of

a. Calibration

b. Quality Assurance

c. Quality Control

24 / 25

24. According to Deming’s Quality Chain Reaction, quality improvement results in decreased productivity.

a. False

b. True

Explanation: According to Deming’s Quality Chain Reaction, quality improvement results in improved productivity, profits, customer satisfaction, and market share. It also results in reduced prices and costs.

25 / 25

25. Match the following:

a. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

b. A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2

c. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

d. A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2

Your score is

The average score is 53%

Time Over......

Pharmacology Quiz

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1 / 44

1. All are true about penicillins EXCEPT:

a. Piperacillin is a penicillin active against pseudomonas

b. Only about 5-10% of people with a past history of penicillin allergy have a reaction on re-exposure

c. Most penicillins only cross blood-brain barrier when the meninges are inflamed

d. Penicillins inhibit cross linkage of peptidoglycans in cell wall

e. Penicillins don’t require adjustment in renal failure

2 / 44

2. Dobutamine:

a. may be used in heart failure

b. predominantly affects D2 receptors in the central nervous system

c. is a non selective beta agonist

d. has no arrhythmogenic effect

e. decreases myocardial oxygen consumption

3 / 44

3. Local anaesthetic agents:

a. can be used with a vasodilator to prolong local action

b. activity is enhanced by high extracellular K+ concentration

c. are primarily potassium channel blockers

d. activity is enhanced by high extracellular (Ca++)

e. prevent repolarisation of the membrane

4 / 44

4. Regarding glucocorticoids:

a. Inhibition of leucocyte and tissue macrophages is not an action of glucocorticoids

b. The major glucocorticoid in humans is cortisol

c. Feedback suppression of pituitary ACTH occurs within hours

d. Absence of cortisol increases the response of vascular and smooth muscle tone to catecholamines

e. A normal adult male secretes 100mg of cortisol each day

5 / 44

5. Aspirin:

a. Is hydrolysed to acetone and salicylate

b. Exhibits first order kinetics with elimination in low doses

c. Is mostly conjugated by the liver and excreted in the bile

d. Causes an immediate doubling of bleeding time

e. Reversibly blocks the cyclooxygenase enzyme

6 / 44

6. Regarding first pass metabolism:

a. it reduces the bioavailability of oral morphine to 15%

b. the extraction ratio of phenytoin is higher

c. it makes it impossible to attain therapeutic levels of lignocaine using oral dosage

d. it affects volume of distribution

e. its effect on bioavailability is expressed as the extraction ratio where ER = CL (liver) /Q (liver)

7 / 44

7. Trimethoprim:

a. does not distribute into the CSF

b. is a weak base

c. activates dihydrofolic acid reductase

d. is harmless in pregnancy

e. has limited activity in the prostate gland

8 / 44

8. Cephalosporins are:

a. all of the above

b. are classified on the basis of antibacterial activity

c. excreted in the bile

d. drugs that can undergo hepatic metabolism

e. excreted via the kidneys in the tubules

9 / 44

9. Toxicity of nicotine containing products:

a. will result in several days of nausea and vomiting

b. usually causes hypotension

c. may result in neuromuscular blockade best treated with atropine

d. will have no effects on the foetus

e. can be symptomatically controlled with benzodiazepines

10 / 44

10. Heparin:

a. Oral bioavailability is 20-30%

b. Is low plasma protein bound

c. Binds to anti-thrombin III causing a conformational change

d. Inhibits clotting by decreasing anti-thrombin III effects

e. Molecular weight ranges from 3,000 – 60,000

11 / 44

11. Most b blockers:

a. Have poor oral bioavailability

b. Have a small volume of distribution

c. Have half lives of 3-10 hours

d. Are highly lipid soluble and hence cross the blood-brain barrier

e. Are rarely excreted unchanged

12 / 44

12. Regarding opioids:

a. tolerance develops with miosis

b. the most reliable indicator of respiratory depression is a depressed response to CO2 challenge

c. neonates have a blood – brain barrier for opioids

d. at the spinal level, only the receptors contribute to analgesia

e. people with Addison’s disease have normal response to opioids

13 / 44

13. Which of the following are antagonist and agonist pairs for the same receptor:

a. oxymetazoline, dobutamine

b. bromocriptine, pranipexole

c. phenyoxybenzamine, cyclopentolate

d. butoxamine, terbutaline

e. pilocarpine, bethanechol

14 / 44

14. Haloperidol:

a. is particularly prone to producing hypotensive side-effects

b. is particularly prone to producing extrapyramidal side-effects

c. is particularly prone to producing anti-muscarinic side-effects

d. is particularly prone to producing arrhythmias

e. is particularly prone to producing a toxic confusional state

15 / 44

15. Atropine:

a. Produces miosis

b. Causes an increase in salivary gland secretions

c. Blocks reuptake of ACH

d. Is not lipid-soluble

e. Can cause bronchodilation

16 / 44

16. ACE inhibitors:

a. cause hyperkalaemia less often in patients with diabetes

b. lead to decreased prostaglandin synthesis

c. are contraindicated in patients on NSAIDS

d. decrease levels of bradykinin

e. decrease glomerular efferent arteriolar resistance

17 / 44

17. Effects of b blockers include:

a. inhibition of glycogenolysis in the liver

b. stimulation of lipolysis via the sympathetic nervous system

c. stimulation of the release of renin

d. stimulation of aqueous humour production

e. inhibition of bronchial smooth muscle spasm

18 / 44

18. Tricyclic antidepressants:

a. Block the enzyme which degrades amine neurotransmitters

b. Is useful in severe depression with strong suicidal ideation

c. Have a low volume of distribution

d. Can prolong QT interval

e. Are useful in urinary retention and chronic pain

19 / 44

19. Regarding active immunisation:

a. booster doses for yellow fever are not required

b. the meningococcal vaccine should be given to asplenic individuals

c. the hepatitis B vaccine is preferably given by subcutaneous injection

d. primary immunisation for haemophilis influenzae type B involves two doses given one month apart

e. the measles vaccine is an inactivated virus

20 / 44

20. Clearance:

a. is independent of concentration for phenytoin

b. is very high for lithium

c. is the amount of drug eliminated divided by the concentration of the drug

d. is inversely proportional to volume of distribution

e. is constant for most drugs in clinical settings at therapeutic levels

21 / 44

21. Drugs with no significant effect on anticoagulant therapy include:

a. benzodiazepines

b. amiodarone

c. metronidazole

d. flucanazole

e. disulfiram

22 / 44

22. Regarding antibiotic resistance:

a. penicillin’s inability to penetrate the organism is more common with gram –ve bacteria

b. betalactamase production is responsible for penicillin resistance in pneumococci

c. penicillin resistance is mainly because of alteration in the target PBPs

d. beta lactamase are identical but produced by different bacteria

e. methicillin resistance in staphylococcus is due to betalactamase production

23 / 44

23. The following drug may be used safely in pregnancy:

a. Streptomycin

b. Propylthiouracil

c. Digoxin

d. Methotrexate

e. Carbamazepine

24 / 44

24. The following are side effects of SSRI’s EXCEPT:

a. anxiety

b. rash

c. weight gain

d. sexual dysfunction

e. gastrointestinal symptoms

25 / 44

25. Which of the following receptor-ligand pathway is TRUE:

a. Mineralocorticoid and tyrosine kinase receptor

b. Vitamin D and intracellular receptor

c. Platelet derived growth factor and cytokine receptor

d. Adrenaline and ligand gated channel receptor

e. Insulin and G-protein receptor

26 / 44

26. GTN has its major effect on effort angina by:

a. Reduction in renin-ang II system effect

b. Reducing afterload and preload

c. Coronary vasodilation

d. Reducing coronary vasospasm

e. Systemic vasoconstriction

27 / 44

27. Of the secondary messengers:

a. all of the above

b. cAMP’s effector enzyme is adenylyl cyclase

c. phosphoinositides act independently of phospholipase -C

d. compared to cAMP, cGMP is a more versatile and ubiquitous carrier of diverse messages

e. upregulation of cAMP degradation is one way theophylline produces its effects

28 / 44

28. Regarding NSAIDS:

a. aspirin at a does of  2g/day reduces uric acid levels

b. use of ibuprofen and aspirin together increases the anti-inflammatory effect

c. at high doses aspirin demonstrates first order kinetics

d. all NSAIDS can be found in synovial fluid after repeated dosing

e. aspirin is a reversible inhibitor of cyclooxygenase

29 / 44

29. Warfarin:

a. Can cause venous thrombosis

b. Inactivates Vit K

c. Loading should be initiated with 0.5mg / day

d. Effect is ameliorated by metronidazole via a bactericidal affect

e. Is 90% bioavailable

30 / 44

30. Regarding biotransformation, which of the following is true:

a. ethanol enhances methanol metabolism

b. rifampicin inhibits oral contraceptives metabolism

c. phenytoin inhibits theophylline metabolism

d. grapefruit juice inhibits cyclosporin metabolism

e. griseofulvin inhibits warfarin metabolism

31 / 44

31. Bioavailability is:

a. is equivalent to absorption minus the extraction rate for an orally administered drug

b. is not affected by first pass metabolism

c. less than 100% by any route

d. is the percentage of a drug formulation that is absorbed

e. is close to 80% for orally administered verapamil

32 / 44

32. Regarding diazepam:

a. Activated charcoal is useful in overdose

b. It has no active metabolites

c. It has no spinal inhibitory action

d. It is a GABA antagonist via the benzodiazepine receptors

e. It undergoes extensive enterohepatic recirculation

33 / 44

33. Volume of distribution:

a. Concentration of drug in plasma / Amount of drug in blood

b. Is always a real volume

c. Amount of drug in plasma / Concentration in body

d. AUC / Dose

e. Amount of drug in body / Concentration of drug in plasma

34 / 44

34. Regarding calcium channel blockers:

a. dihydropyridines typically cause bradycardia

b. most have half lives of 8-12 hours

c. mechanism of action is the blockage of voltage dependent L-type calcium channels

d. not all are active when given orally

e. they do not affect bronchiolar smooth muscle

35 / 44

35. With regard to non-depolarising neuromuscular blocking drugs:

a. rocuronium undergoes Hoffman elimination

b. vecuronium is eliminated predominantly via the kdney

c. pancuronium is eliminated via the kidney

d. atracurium is eliminated via plasma pseudocholinesterases

e. rocuronium is an isoquinolone derivative

36 / 44

36. The following are true for adrenaline EXCEPT

a. It may be administered via inhalation, orally and parentally

b. In cardiac arrest it facilitates CPR via peripheral varioconstruction

c. It has no active metabolites

d. It acts via G-proteins

e. Alpha receptor stimulation results in decreased cAMP production

37 / 44

37. Which of the following antihypertensives act on the vasomotor centre:

a. Methyldopa

b. Prazosin

c. Iosartan

d. Reserpine

e. Hydralazine

38 / 44

38. Regarding phenytoin, all the following are true EXCEPT:

a. oral bioavailability is variable

b. metabolism is enhanced in presence of inducers of liver metabolism

c. elimination kinetics shift from first order to zero order at moderate to high dose

d. half life varies from 12-36 hours

e. binds poorly with plasma proteins

39 / 44

39. Regarding drugs used in the treatment of status epilepsy:

a. the effect of diazepam is long lasting

b. phenytoin may be diluted in both saline and dextrose

c. phenytoin is useful in status for its sedating as well as anticonvulsant activity

d. administration of phenytoin should be at a minimum rate of 50mg/min

e. respiratory depression is a common complication of phenobarbitone

40 / 44

40. Age associated changes in pharmacokinetics include:

a. a reduction in creatinine clearance in two thirds of the population

b. an increase in body water

c. a decrease in body fat

d. a decreased absorption related to age alone

e. a greater reduction in conjugation compared with oxidation

41 / 44

41. Regarding inhaled anaesthetics:

a. nitrous oxide has a relatively low minimum alveolar concentration

b. they decrease the metabolic rate in the brain by decreasing cerebral blood flow

c. nitrous oxide causes a decrease in tidal volume and an increase in respiratory rate

d. they reduce mean arterial pressure in direct proportion to their alveolar concentration

e. halogenated agents have a lower brain : blood partition coefficient

42 / 44

42. Amiodarone:

a. Effects Na+, K+ channels but not Ca2+ channels

b. Has antianginal effects

c. Increases peripheral resistance

d. Has a short half life

e. Has little effect on the lung

43 / 44

43. With regard to oral anti-asthmatic agents:

a. prednisone is a long acting glucocorticoid

b. macrolide antibiotics show no benefit in managing asthmatics

c. methotrexate has been shown to be beneficial in prednisone-dependent asthmatics in all studies

d. cyclosporin’s toxicity limits its use as an oral anti-asthmatic agent

e. oral nifedipine significantly inhibits exercise-induced bronhoconstriction

44 / 44

44. Which statement is false:

a. drug A with a lower potency must have a lower efficacy than drug B

b. none of the above

c. drug A with a higher affinity for its drug receptors have a higher potency

d. drug A with a higher potency can have a lower efficacy than drug B

e. drug A with a higher potency than drug B, can still have the same efficacy

Your score is

The average score is 33%

INTRODUCTION TO BIOCHEMISTRY

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1 / 40

1. Enzymes catalyzing electron transport are present mainly in the

a. Ribosomes

b. Endoplasmic reticulum

c. Lysosomes

d. Inner mitochondrial membrane

2 / 40

2. The cellular organelles called “suicide bags” are

a. Lysosomes

b. Ribosomes

c. Nucleolus

d. Golgi’s bodies

3 / 40

3. The digestive enzymes of cellular compounds are confined to

a. Lysosomes

b. Ribosomes

c. Peroxisomes

d. Polysomes

4 / 40

4. Milk is deficient in which vitamins?

a. Vitamin C

b. Vitamin A

c. Vitamin B2

d. Vitamin K

5 / 40

5. The following points about microfilaments are true except

a. They form cytoskeleton with microtubules

b. They provide support and shape

c. They form intracellular conducting channels

d. They are involved in muscle cell contraction

6 / 40

6. Synthesis of prostaglandinsis is inhibited by

a. Aspirin

b. Arsenic

c. Fluoride

d. Cyanide

7 / 40

7. Which of the following statement is correct about membrane cholesterol?

a. The hydroxyl group is located near the centre of the lipid layer

b. Most of the cholesterol is in the form of a cholesterol ester

c. The steroid nucleus form forms a rigid, planar structure

d. The hydrocarbon chain of cholesterol projects into the extracellular fluid

8 / 40

8. Oxidation of which substance in the body yields the most calories

a. Glucose

b. Glycogen

c. Protein

d. Lipids

9 / 40

9. Which of the following is required for crystallization and storage of the hormone insulin?

a. Mn++

b. Mg++

c. Ca++

d. Zn++

10 / 40

10. The pH of blood is 7.4 when the ratio between H2CO3 and NaHCO3 is

a. 1 : 10

b. 1 : 20

c. 1 : 25

d. 1 : 30

11 / 40

11. The Golgi complex

a. Synthesizes proteins

b. Produces ATP

c. Provides a pathway for transporting chemicals

d. Forms glycoproteins

12 / 40

12. The most active site of protein synthesis is the

a. Nucleus

b. Ribosome

c. Mitochondrion

d. Cell sap

13 / 40

13. The ability of the cell membrane to act as a selective barrier depends upon

a. The lipid composition of the membrane

b. The pores which allows small molecules

c. The special mediated transport systems

d. All of these

14 / 40

14. The degradative Processess are categorized under the heading of

a. Anabolism

b. Catabolism

c. Metabolism

d. None of the above

15 / 40

15. Bulk transport across cell membrane is accomplished by

a. Phagocytosis

b. Pinocytosis

c. Extrusion

d. All of these

16 / 40

16. The fatty acids can be transported into and out of mitochondria through

a. Active transport

b. Facilitated transfer

c. Non-facilitated transfer

d. None of these

17 / 40

17. HDL is synthesized and secreted from

a. Pancreas

b. Liver

c. Kidney

d. Muscle

18 / 40

18. Which are the cholesterol esters that enter cells through the receptor-mediated endocytosis of lipoproteins hydrolyzed?

a. Endoplasmin reticulum

b. Lysosomes

c. Plasma membrane receptor

d. Mitochondria

19 / 40

19. Mature erythrocytes do not contain

a. Glycolytic enzymes

b. HMP shunt enzymes

c. Pyridine nucleotide

d. ATP

20 / 40

20. In mammalian cells rRNA is produced mainly in the

a. Endoplasmic reticulum

b. Ribosome

c. Nucleolus

d. Nucleus

21 / 40

21. Which of the following phospholipids is localized to a greater extent in the outer leaflet of the membrane lipid bilayer?

a. Choline phosphoglycerides

b. Ethanolamine phosphoglycerides

c. Inositol phosphoglycerides

d. Serine phosphoglycerides

22 / 40

22. Genetic information of nuclear DNA is transmitted to the site of protein synthesis by

a. rRNA

b. mRNA

c. tRNA

d. Polysomes

23 / 40

23. The exchange of material takes place

a. Only by diffusion

b. Only by active transport

c. Only by pinocytosis

d. All of these

24 / 40

24. Which of the following is located in the mitochondria?

a. Cytochrome oxidase

b. Succinate dehydrogenase

c. Dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase

d. All of these

25 / 40

25. A lipid bilayer is permeable to

a. Urea

b. Fructose

c. Glucose

d. Potassium

26 / 40

26. The power house of the cell is

a. Nucleus

b. Cell membrane

c. Mitochondria

d. Lysosomes

27 / 40

27. All the following processes occur rapidly in the membrane lipid bilayer except

a. Flexing of fatty acyl chains

b. Lateral diffusion of phospholipids

c. Transbilayer diffusion of phopholipids

d. Rotation of phospholipids around their long axes

28 / 40

28. Mitochondrial DNA is

a. Circular double stranded

b. Circular single stranded

c. Linear double helix

d. None of these

29 / 40

29. Carrier protein can

a. Transport only one substance

b. Transport more than one substance

c. Exchange one substance to another

d. Perform all of these functions

30 / 40

30. Fatty acids can be transported into and out of cell membrane by

a. Active transport

b. Facilitated transport

c. Diffusion

d. Osmosis

31 / 40

31. Which one is the largest particulate of the cytoplasm?

a. Lysosomes

b. Mitochondria

c. Golgi apparatus

d. Entoplasmic reticulum

32 / 40

32. The following substances are cell inclusions except

a. Melanin

b. Glycogen

c. Lipids

d. Centrosome

33 / 40

33. Which one is the heaviest particulate component of the cell?

a. Nucleus

b. Mitochondria

c. Cytoplasm

d. Golgi apparatus

34 / 40

34. The surface tension in intestinal lumen between fat droplets and aqueous medium is decreased by

a. Bile Salts

b. Bile acids

c. Conc. H2SO4

d. Acetic acid

35 / 40

35. From the biological viewpoint, solutions can be grouped into

a. Isotonic solution

b. Hypotonic solutions

c. Hypertonic solution

d. All of these

36 / 40

36. Milk is deficient of which mineral?

a. Phosphorus

b. Sodium

c. Iron

d. Potassium

37 / 40

37. The absorption of intact protein from the gut in the foetal and newborn animals takes place by

a. Pinocytosis

b. Passive diffusion

c. Simple diffusion

d. Active transport

38 / 40

38. The phenomenon of osmosis is opposite to that of

a. Diffusion

b. Effusion

c. Affusion

d. Coagulation

39 / 40

39. A drug which prevents uric acid synthesis by inhibiting the enzyme xanthine oxidase is

a. Aspirin

b. Allopurinol

c. Colchicine

d. Probenecid

40 / 40

40. The average pH of Urine is

a. 7.0

b. 6.0

c. 8.0

d. 0.0

Your score is

The average score is 51%

Pharmaceutics Quiz 1

Get ready to test your knowledge in the field of Pharmaceutics. Please click on the right option to answer the questions. Good luck!

Please login to participate in this Quiz!

1 / 82

1. Constituents of calamine lotion BP include calamine and:

a. aluminium oxide

b. sodium chloride

c. zinc oxide

d. magnesium hydroxide

e. calcium carbonate

2 / 82

2. The amount in grams of a powder required to make 5 L of an aque-ous solution at a concentration of 2% w/v of the anhydrous substance is (the powder contains 5% w/w moisture):

a. 10

b. 25

c. 26.32

d. 100

e. 105

3 / 82

3. Controlled released drug delivery depends on:

a. Body fluid interaction

b. Enzymatic reactions

c. Ready programmed&no influece of the body fluid

d. Stomach PH

4 / 82

4. most described dosage solid form:

a. powder

b. tablet

c. soft capsule

d. hard capsule

5 / 82

5. Insulin Storage at:

a. 0 ˚C

b. 4-8 ˚C

c. 24 ˚C

d. 25 ˚C

6 / 82

6. The amount in millligrams of hydrocortisone required to prepare 30g of hydrocortisone 0.1% w/w cream is:

a. 0.0003

b. 0.003

c. 0.03

d. 0.3

e. 30

7 / 82

7. When a drug is administered as a solid oral dosage form, the first process that occurs is:

a. absorption

b. disintegration

c. dissolution

d. ionization

e. metabolism

8 / 82

8. Solid dosage forms are better than Solution dosage form because:

a. Accurate dose

b. Easy to handle

c. More stable

d. Faster action

e. Accurate dose, Easy to handle & More stable

9 / 82

9. suspension eye drop differ than ophthalmic solution in:

a. less commonly used

b. decrease contact time of drug with eye

c. used for insoluble drugs

d. less commonly used & used for insoluble drugs

10 / 82

10. protect from light" in usp means :

a. air tight container

b. plastic container

c. Light resistant container

d. Amber glass

e. Amber plastic

11 / 82

11. Within the pharmaceutical industry, the department which ensures that the facilities and systems adopted are adequate is:

a. research and development department

b. analytical methods department

c. production department

d. quality assurance department

e. quality control department

12 / 82

12. At 25° C, benzoic acid is much more soluble in benzene (C6H6) than it is in water. In this situation benzoic acid could be considered to be:

a. Hydrophilic

b. Colloidal

c. Non-polar

d. Polar

13 / 82

13. Concentration of normal saline:

a. 9%

b. 5.3%

c. 0.9%

d. 90 %

14 / 82

14. Convert 18 μg to milligrams:

a. 18000

b. 1800

c. 0.0018

d. 0.018

e. 0.18

15 / 82

15. Eight fluid ounce equal to:

a. 240 ml

b. 120 ml

c. 60 ml

d. none of the above

16 / 82

16. Drug stored in the body in

a. fat

b. protein

c. connective tissue

d. muscle

e. A & B

17 / 82

17. Drugs least likely to penetrate across membranes?

a. Protein bound drugs

b. Charged drugs

c. Neutral drugs

d. None

18 / 82

18. In pharmaceutical manufacturing, the Qualified Person:

a. ensures that standards of good practice in manufacturing are complied with

b. establishes the period of validity of the manufacturer’s licence

c. may revoke a manufacturer’s licence

d. ensures that good accounting practices are implemented in the administration department

e. advises the Licensing Authority on the granting of a manufacturer’s licence

19 / 82

19. 5000 mg equals 0.005:

a. grams

b. kilograms

c. micrograms

d. centigrams

e. nanograms

20 / 82

20. Which of the following effect is not considered in formation of suspension?

a. Use of chelating agent

b. of whiting agent

c. article size

d. non of the above

21 / 82

21. A patient is prescribed 3 L normal saline over 12 hours using a 5 drops/mL infusion set. The infusion rate in drops/minute is:

a. 5

b. 12

c. 15

d. 21

e. 25

The patient should be given 3000 mL over 720 minutes (12 hours 60 min-utes).
Since 5 drops make 1 mL then 15 000 drops (3000 mL 5 drops) are required for
3000 mL. Hence 15 000 drops should be infused over 720 min-utes at a rate of 20.8 (15 000/720) or 21
drops/minute.

22 / 82

22. Polymers are used in pharmaceutical manufacturing as:

a. suspending agents

b. binding agents

c. emulsifying agents

d. all

23 / 82

23. Which of the following dosage form can be administrated orally?

a. Spray

b. Suppositories

c. Ointment

d. Elixir

24 / 82

24. The refrigerator in the pharmacy that is used for storage of pharmaceutical products should be kept at a temperature of:

a. 0–3˚C

b. 2–8˚C

c. 5–10˚C

d. 6–12˚C

e. 3–8˚C

25 / 82

25. Medication storage requirements in a pharmacy include:

a. temperature control for medicines that are temperature labile

b. separation of storage of medicines from non-pharmaceutical products

c. locked cabinet for controlled drugs

d. all

26 / 82

26. Insulin syringes:

a. are calibrated in mL

b. are calibrated in units

c. a large gauge needle is required

d. maximum volume is 5 mL

e. needle length is 10 cm

27 / 82

27. A patient is administered 500 mL normal saline over 4 hours using 10 drops/mL infusion set. The infusion rate in drops/minute is:

a. 2

b. 5

c. 10

d. 13

e. 21

28 / 82

28. The % concentration v/v of a 50 g cream that contains 1.25 g ketoprofen is:

a. 0.02

b. 1.25

c. 2.5

d. 25

29 / 82

29. The usual expiration date that should be placed on a cream prepared in a pharmacy is:

a. 1 week

b. 2 weeks

c. 4 weeks

d. 8 weeks

30 / 82

30. Quality control is control of:

a. condition

b. specification

c. shelf life

d. All above

31 / 82

31. A solution of sodium chloride contains 500 mg of sodium chloride made up to 100 mL with water. Express this solution as a percentage w/v:

a. 500

b. 50

c. 5

d. 0.5

e. 0.05

32 / 82

32. How many milliliters of ampicillin do you have to dispense if the patient needs to take 2 tsp qid for 7 days:

a. 280 mls

b. 560 mls

c. 840 mls

d. 350 mls

33 / 82

33. A patient purchasing sublingual nitroglycerin tablets should be told to store the medication:

a. in the refrigerator.

b. in a plastic vial with a childproof cap.

c. with the original cotton.

d. in an amber glass bottle with a metal cap.

e. in a warm, dry place

34 / 82

34. OTC means:

a. Over the content

b. Over the counter Drugs

c. On the counter

d. Ophthalmic Drugs

35 / 82

35. Which of the following is parenteral rout of administration?

a. Subcutaneous

b. IM

c. IV

d. All of the above

36 / 82

36. Non-pharmacological methods that lower blood pressure includes all EXCEPT:

a. decreasing alcohol consumption

b. taking small, frequent meals

c. relaxation techniques

d. regular exercise

e. stopping smoking

37 / 82

37. How much magnesium sulfate is in 10 ml of a 200 mg/ml magnesium sulfate solution?

a. 1 gm

b. 2 gm

c. 3 gm

d. 2.5 gm

38 / 82

38. In pharmaceutical manufacturing, process validation:

a. GMP requirement

b. aims to ensure that the final product produced is of the expected quality

c. GMP and aims to ensure that the final product produced is of the expected quality

d. should be carried out independently by the quality assurance Department

39 / 82

39. A patient information leaflet:

a. is addressed to the prescriber

b. is only available for medicines presented in bulk dispensing packs

c. usually includes the recommended International Non-propri-etary Name (rINN) of the drug

d. just for advertisement

40 / 82

40. Hypertonic solutions can be adjusted by:

a. Add Nacl salt to solution

b. add any other salt

c. Make dilution by add more solvent

d. This solution cannot be adjusted

e. one of the above

41 / 82

41. A woman comes to the pharmacy with severe sunburn. Which of the following should be advised?

a. apply a soothing antiseptic cream

b. drink plenty of water

c. apply local anaesthetic

42 / 82

42. Good pharmacy practice guidelines:

a. comply with ISO 9000

b. consist of an audit process

c. entail field observation studies

d. have been established by the International Pharmaceutical Federation (FIP)

e. relate to pharmaceutical marketing

43 / 82

43. Content of patient file is:

a. name+ age+ gender+ diagnosis+ medication

b. name + diagnosis

c. Medication only

d. name+ age+ gender+ telephone

44 / 82

44.

Factors that affect drug absorption include all EXCEPT:

a. drug half-life

b. gastric motility

c. blood flow

d. food intake

e. pH at absorption site

45 / 82

45. The pH for acidic preparation is:

a. 7

b. More than 7

c. Less than 7

d. 5.5 – 8.5

46 / 82

46. When advising a patient on the correct use of eye drops, which one of the following statements is incorrect?

a. tilt your head back and pull down the lower lid of your eye with the index finger

b. hold the tip of the dropper against the lower lid

c. gently squeeze the dropper so that the correct number of drops are released

d. close the eye for 2–3 minutes and wipe any excess liquid from your face with a tissue

e. replace and tighten cap

47 / 82

47. Pharmacoepidemiology:

a. concerns adverse reactions

b. relates to drug elimination from the body

c. is the study of the use and effects of drugs in a large number of people

d. is the analysis of drug disposition factors

e. relates to drug wastage

48 / 82

48. Alginic acid is found in some antacid preparations. The primary function is to:

a. act as an antifoaming agent

b. accelerate gastric emptying

c. prevent refluxing into the oesophagus

d. act as an antimuscarinic

e. act as a flavouring agent

49 / 82

49. If the Prescription is not clear:

a. Return it to the Doctor

b. Give it to the Pharmacist

c. Dispense the clear drugs

d. Return it to the patient

50 / 82

50. The volume of distribution of a drug describes:

a. the apparent distribution of the drug in the body

b. the concentration of the drug in plasma

c. the volume of plasma that is cleared from the body

d. the concentration of the drug in blood

e. the rate of elimination of the drug from the body

51 / 82

51. Which is disadvantage relating to oral drug administration?

a. Least economical

b. Drug taken orally may cause emesis

c. Drug taken orally may be destroyed by gastric acidity & may be metabolized by GIT flora

d. Drug taken orally may be inconsistenly absorbed due to the presence of food

e. All

52 / 82

52. An investigational medicinal product is:

a. a product intended to induce a specific alteration in the immunological response

b. a product consisting of a toxin

c. a product prepared from homeopathic stocks

d. a pharmaceutical form of an active substance being tested or used in a clinical trial

e. a product prepared in a pharmacy in accordance with a prescription

53 / 82

53. Barrier creams:

a. protect the skin from becoming macerated

b. consist of silicones and zinc

c. may be used to protect against napkin dermatitis

d. all

54 / 82

54. qid means:

a. Three times per day

b. Two times per day

c. Four times per day

d. Once daily

55 / 82

55. Constituents of oral rehydration salts include all EXCEPT:

a. sodium chloride

b. magnesium hydroxide

c. glucose

d. potassium chloride

e. sodium citrate

56 / 82

56. The use of a suspension as a parenteral preparation is contraindicated when the route of administration is:

a. subcutaneous

b. intramuscular

c. intravenous

d. intradermal

e. intra-articular

57 / 82

57. Prescription Must contain all of the following except:

a. Name of the patient

b. Diagnosis

c. Single or Married

d. Dosage form

58 / 82

58. Content of ORS:

a. NaCl+ Na lactate+ K citrate

b. Glucose+ NaCl+ Na citrate+ K citrate

c. NaCl+ Na lactate+ K citrate+ MgOH

d. Glucose+ fructose+ NaCl+ KCl+ Na citrate+ K citrate (Glucose + NaCl + KCl + Na-citrate or bicarbonate)

59 / 82

59. The maximum volume that should be given as a single intramuscular injection at one site is:

a. 20 mL

b. 0.1 mL

c. 1.0 mL

d. 5 mL

e. 2 mL

60 / 82

60. The latin abbreviation for “Every Night” is:

a. a.c.

b. o.n.

c. p.c.

d. c.c

61 / 82

61. enzyme kinetics law

a. Michaelis–Menten law.

b. Henry s law.

c. Franks law.

d. Henderson hassel bach law.

62 / 82

62. Patient medication records should include all EXCEPT:

a. medication allergies

b. diagnosis

c. current medication therapy

d. pets kept at home

e. age

63 / 82

63. Adsorption, which is not true

a. Chemical property

b. Physical property

c. Reversible

d. Irreversible

e. A & d

64 / 82

64. qod means:

a. Three times daily

b. Every day

c. Four times daily

d. Every other day

65 / 82

65. What is the most appropriate treatment that could be dispensed over-the-counter for irritation caused by contact dermatitis?

a. Eurax cream

b. Canesten HC cream

c. Hydrocortisone cream

d. Clarityn tablets

e. Pevaryl cream

66 / 82

66. The following liquids are least likely to be miscible:

a. polar + polar

b. non-polar + polar

c. non-polar + non-polar

d. all of the above will be miscible

67 / 82

67. A stock solution is diluted to make a 1-in-5 strength solution. The amount in millilitres of the stock solution that is present in 250 mL of the resulting solution is:

a. 1

b. 25

c. 50

d. 250

e. 1250

68 / 82

68. According to good practice, when dispensing a medication the pharmacist is required to:

a. provide written instructions

b. provide verbal advice

c. ask whether the patient has any problems with the medication

d. all

69 / 82

69. A pharmacist is required to dispense 30 g of 0.5% hydrocortisone ointment. The pharmacist has available a hydrocortisone ointment 1%. How many grams of the 1% ointment could be diluted with white soft paraffin to prepare this order?

a. 15 g

b. 30 g

c. 0.15 g

d. 0.5 g

e. 1.5 g

70 / 82

70. Bioavailability describes the relative amount of drug that reaches the:

a. kidney

b. systemic circulation

c. liver

d. stomach

e. small intestine

71 / 82

71. When dispensing acarbose, the patient should be advised:

a. to take tablets in the morning

b. to avoid direct sunlight

c. that flatulence and diarrhoea may occur

d. to take tablets in the evening

72 / 82

72. The % v/v concentration of a solution of mivacurium 500 µg/mL is:

a. 0.0005

b. 0.005

c. 0.05

d. 0.5

e. 50

73 / 82

73. A 1% w/v solution of a local anaesthetic contains:

a. 1 mg in 100 mL

b. 1 g in 100 mL

c. 10 mg in 1 mL

d. 1 g in 1 mL

e. 100 mg in 100 mL

74 / 82

74. The stability of the pharmaceutical products is affected by the following factors except:

a. Temperature and humidity

b. Composition of the drug product

c. Dosage form and the packaging material

d. Dose strength and paksize

75 / 82

75. drugs have different crystal structures so different in

a. polymorphism

b. solubility

c. crystalitis

d. drug form

76 / 82

76. The latin abbreviation for “After Meals” is:

a. a.c.

b. a.a.

c. p.c.

d. i.c.

77 / 82

77. When 500 mL of a 10% ammonia solution are diluted to 1000 mL, the percentage v/v is:

a. 20

b. 10

c. 5

d. 0.05

e. 0.5

78 / 82

78. A patient asks for an over-the-counter cold remedy. The pharmacist could appropriately suggest:

a. Otrivine drops

b. Beecham’s Hot Lemon and Honey powders

c. Atarax tablets

d. Actifed Compound Linctus

e. Karvol inhalation capsules

79 / 82

79. The following properties are similar for both solutions and suspensions:

a. A. The components of both solutions and suspensions can be separated from each other by physical processes.

b. B. Solutions and suspensions are composed of two or more components.

c. C. Solute in the solutions and suspensions settle out over a period of time.

d. Both A and B

80 / 82

80. tid means:

a. Three times per day

b. Two times per day

c. Four times per day

d. Once daily

81 / 82

81. bid means:

a. Three times per day

b. Two times per day

c. Four times per day

d. Once daily

82 / 82

82. The amount in grams of sodium bicarbonate that are contained in a10 mL disposable syringe of 4.2% w/w sodium bicarbonate is:

a. 0.00042

b. 0.0042

c. 0.042

d. 0.42

e. 4.2

Your score is

The average score is 56%

Pharmaceutics Quiz 2

Get ready to test your knowledge in the field of Pharmaceutics. Please click on the right option to answer the questions. Good luck!

Please login to participate in this Quiz!

NameEmail

1 / 54

1. Gums are used in tabletting primarily as

a. Disintegrators

b. Glidants

c. Lubricants

d. Binding agents

2 / 54

2. The mixture of liquid paraffine and water will be

a. solution

b. lotion

c. emulsion

d. elixir

e. drops

3 / 54

3. What is the concentration of mercurochrome solution?

a. 2%

b. 0.2%

c. 0.02%

d. 0.002%

4 / 54

4. The conc. Of the drug on expiration date is

a. not less than 100 %

b. not less than 90 %

c. from 90-110 %

d. none of the above

5 / 54

5. Which of the following is NOT a primary literature

a. gournal of pharmacy practice

b. applied therapeutic & clinical use of drug

c. new England Journal of medicine

d. Loncet

e. JAMA

6 / 54

6. HOW can prepare 100 ml of 12% MgCl by taking?

a. 12ml of MGCL dissolve in 100 ml water

b. 12 mg of Mgcl dissolve in 100 ml water

c. 12ml of MGCL dissolve in 1000 ml water

d. 12gm of MGCL dissolve in 1000 ml water

7 / 54

7. Which of the following not given IV:

a. Suspension

b. Emulsion

c. Solution

d. All of the above

8 / 54

8. The appropriate PH range for ophthalmic products is

a. 2.0 to 3.0

b. 4.0 to 6.0

c. 6.0 to 8.0

d. 8.0 to 10.0

9 / 54

9. How much lidocaine for solution of 1/1000 to obtain 30 cc:

a. 0.03.

b. 0.3.

c. 30.

d. None of the above.

10 / 54

10. All of these are anions except:

a. Phosphate.

b. Acetate.

c. Sodium.

d. Chloride.

11 / 54

11. What is the concentration of solution, if we dilute 100 ml 5% of antiseptic solution to 200 ml?

a. 10%

b. 5%

c. 2.5%

d. 0.5%

12 / 54

12. WFI characterized by:

a. Free from sodium

b. Free from Ca and K

c. Pyrogen free

d. All above

13 / 54

13. The mixture of acacia, water, and oil will be

a. lotion

b. Suspension

c. Solution

d. Emulsion

14 / 54

14. 8 gm of water are needed to make 160 gm of 5% w/w solution of K acetate.

a. True

b. False

15 / 54

15. Advantages of tablets over liquid dose forms include the following

a. Enhanced stability

b. Ease of administration

c. Greater accuracy of dosing

d. All above

16 / 54

16. Most drugs are

a. Strong electrolytes

b. Weak electrolytes

c. Non electrolytes

d. Highly ionic

e. None of the above

17 / 54

17. H2o + Nacl final will be:

a. Suspension

b. Emulsion

c. Solution

d. Lotion

18 / 54

18. Normal saline conc.:

a. 9%

b. 4.5%

c. 0.9%

d. 90%

19 / 54

19. How many grams of water needed to prepare 150 gm of potassium acetate solution with concentration 4% w/w?

a. 157

b. 144

c. 66

d. 6

20 / 54

20. Ophthalmic solutions should be formulated to include which of the following?

a. Sterility

b. Isotonicity

c. Buffering

d. all above

21 / 54

21. How many milliliters of a NS solution can be made from 4500 mg of sodium chloride?

a. 0.5 L

b. 5 L

c. 50 L

d. None of the above

22 / 54

22. Injection in spinal fluid called:

a. Intrathecal injection

b. Intramascular

c. Intrapretonial

d. Intraarticular

23 / 54

23. Which of the following is responsible for buffering

a. magnesium

b. chloride

c. bicarbonates

d. potassium

24 / 54

24. The concentration of one drug is 1:100, if the patient takes 900 ml at the morning and 600 ml in the evening, How much drug will the patient take in 15 days?

a. 15 mg

b. 15 gm

c. 225mg

d. 225gm

25 / 54

25. three grains equal………mg

a. 168

b. 65

c. 195

d. None of the above

26 / 54

26. How many grams of substance X are needed to prepare 100 cc from solution 1:1000 ?

a. 10 mg

b. 0.01 mg

c. 100 mg

d. 1000 mg

27 / 54

27. A medicine expires "January 2001" it must not be used after

a. January 01,2001

b. January15,2001

c. January 31,2001

d. December 31,2001

28 / 54

28. In a bottle, we have NaCl 500 ml, and to obtain we should add what volume of H2O to get percent dilution 3 (H2O) : 1 (NaCl)?

a. 1500 ml.

b. 2500 ml.

c. 3000 ml.

d. 1250 ml.

29 / 54

29. 0.5 NS solution contains……….milligram sodium chloride in 30 ml.

a. 0.27

b. 270

c. 135

d. 0.135

30 / 54

30. Crystalline insulin is:

a. Cloudy

b. Clear

c. Unclear

d. Non above

31 / 54

31. Suitable volume for ophthalmic preparation is:

a. 1 ml

b. 50 micro liters

c. 10 micro liters

d. 5 ml

32 / 54

32. Drugs to pass B.B.B. should be:

a. Unionized hydrophilic.

b. Ionized hydrophilic.

c. Unionized lipophilic.

d. Ionized lipophilic

33 / 54

33. The following is NOT characteristic of solution:

a. thermodynamically stable

b. composed of two or more component that exist in one phase

c. homogenous

d. the solvent and solute can be separated by filtration

e. solute doesn`t precipitate as time passes

34 / 54

34. How many grams of water are used to prepare 60 g of potassium acetate solution with have concentration of 5% w/w:

a. 300 gm

b. 57 gm

c. 3 gm

d. 5.7 gm

35 / 54

35. Most common drops:

a. Solution

b. Suspension

c. Emulsion

d. Ointments

36 / 54

36. Which of the following factors affect the distribution of a drug?

a. Lipid solubility

b. Plasma protein binding

c. Polarity

d. Molecular size

e. All of the above

37 / 54

37. Natural emulsifying agent is:

a. Span

b. Acacia

c. Tween

d. all above

38 / 54

38. Sustained release tablets depend on:

a. PH of stomach

b. PH of Large Intestine

c. PH of Small Intestine

d. None of these

39 / 54

39. A patient who weighs 50 kg receives 5 mg/kg of acyclovir tid, so the patient receives………….mg/day

a. 15

b. 250

c. 500

d. 750

40 / 54

40. Surfactant not used orally:

a. Na lauryl sulphate.

b. Tween

c. Span

41 / 54

41. Alcohol present in pharmacy as antiseptic is in concentration:

a. 65%

b. 60%

c. 70%

d. 68%

42 / 54

42. All of these are the components of calamine lotion B.P. except

a. ZnO

b. Calamine

c. Sodium citrate

d. Bentonite

e. Sodium sulphate

43 / 54

43. The most common disintergrator in compressed tablets is

a. Dextrose

b. Lactose

c. Starch

d. Potassium bitartrate

e. Powdered sucrose

44 / 54

44. MMR vaccine is

a. measles vaccine

b. mumps vaccine

c. rubella vaccine

d. measles-mumps-rubella vaccine

45 / 54

45. Enteric coated tablets

a. pass the stomach and release in the intestine

b. pass the stomach and intestine

c. release in the stomach

46 / 54

46. 10 grains equal how much grams

a. 0.0065

b. 0.065

c. 0.65

d. 6.5

47 / 54

47. Controlled released drug delivery depends on:

a. Ready programmed & no influence of the body fluid.

b. Enzymatic reactions.

c. Body fluid interaction.

d. Stomach Ph.

e. All of them

48 / 54

48. Tween 20 is:

a. eflocoulant

b. lipohpilic surfactant

c. preservative

d. hydrophilic surfactant

49 / 54

49. A 20-kg child receives erythromycin 30 mg/kg q6h, so he receives………..mg/day

a. 180

b. 3600

c. 2400

d. 120

50 / 54

50. 25 oC = ……. oF

a. 31.66

b. 77

c. 13

d. -3.8

51 / 54

51. D10W means……………..

a. solution containing 10 mg dextrose in 100 ml water

b. solution containing 10 mg dextrose in 100L water

c. solution containing 10 gm dextrose in 1000 ml water

d. solution containing 10 gm dextrose in 100 ml water

52 / 54

52. Which of the following consider Parenteral Administration?

a. Subcutaneous

b. Oral

c. Aa

d. All

53 / 54

53. 1 milliliter =…….minims

a. 14.23

b. 15.23

c. 16.23

d. None of the above

54 / 54

54. The ability of a liquid to dissolve is :

a. hydrophilicity

b. miscibility

c. immiscibility

d. solubility equilibrium

Your score is

The average score is 43%

Pharmaceutics Quiz 3

Get ready to test your knowledge in the field of Pharmaceutics. Please click on the right option to answer the questions. Good luck!

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NameEmail

1 / 40

1. What does pharmacy practices is involves…

a. Review and interpretation of prescription

b. Suggestion of new prescription

c. Review and interpretation of prescription and suggestion of new prescription both

d. None

2 / 40

2. The profession in which medications are prepared, and dispensed and information regarding products provided to the public and healthcare professions is known as…

a. Pharmaceutics

b. Physiology

c. Pharmacy

d. Pharmacology

3 / 40

3. The study of the relationship between product formulation, delivery, clinical product response, and disposition is called …

a. Pharmacy

b. Physiology

c. Biochemistry

d. Pharmaceutics

4 / 40

4. It is the book containing lists of drugs approved by FDA.

a. Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR)

b. Mosby’s GenRx

c. Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy

d. Orange Book

5 / 40

5. What is the example of Drug Compendia?

a. Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR)

b. Mosby’s GenRx

c. Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR) and Mosby’s GenRx both

d. Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy

e. Orange Book

6 / 40

6. Formularies are the books containing

a. Information for the preparation of drugs

b. Lists of drugs approved for use by a particular hospital, health plan or government

c. Lists of drugs approved by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and the FDA’s evaluations of the therapeutic equivalence of different manufacturers’ preparations of approved drugs.

d. Information about the therapeutic uses of drugs.

7 / 40

7. Which of the following is actually a drug compendium? (Compendium means the list of items).

a. International Pharmacopoeia

b. City pharmacopoeia

c. Pharmacopoea Amstelredamensis

d. Martindale: The Extra Pharmacopoeia

8 / 40

8. Which Pharmacopoeia has been recognized by The Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic (FDC) Act?

a. United States Pharmacopoeia / National Formulary (USP/NF)

b. British Pharmacopoeia (BP)

c. European Pharmacopoeia

d. All of them

9 / 40

9. Pharmacopoeias are

a. Books or databases listing information about the therapeutic uses of drugs.

b. Books or databases listing drugs used in medical practice and describing their composition, preparation, use, dosages, effects, and side effects, especially one published as an official guide for pharmacists.

c. Books which not authorized by governments or by international agencies.

d. Books containing list of pharmacy items.

10 / 40

10. It is the process in which the different chemical substances are combined to produce a final drug product.

a. Prescription

b. Compounding

c. Dispensing

d. Formulation

11 / 40

11. What is the process for separating lighter particles from heavier ones using a vertically-directed stream of gas or liquid (usually upwards)?

a. Elutriation

b. Centrifugation

c. Levigation

d. Vaporization

12 / 40

12. Autoclave is a strong steel vessel that is used for which of the following processes?

a. Pasteurization

b. Sterilization

c. Precipitation

d. Heating

13 / 40

13. What is the device that rotates rapidly and uses centrifugal force to separate substances of different densities?

a. Cyclone

b. Centrifuge

c. Impeller

d. Both cyclone and centrifuge

14 / 40

14. Ionic compounds are easily soluble in

a. Polar solvents

b. Non-polar solvents

c. Both polar and non-polar solvents

15 / 40

15. Molecular weight is a

a. Constitutive property

b. Additive property

c. Colligative property

16 / 40

16. Lowering of vapor pressure is a

a. Constitutive property

b. Additive property

c. Colligative property

d. Combination of additive and colligative property

17 / 40

17. The property that depends on the sum of the corresponding properties of individual atoms or functional groups within the molecules

a. Constitutive property

b. Additive property

c. Colligative property

d. Both colligative property and additive property

18 / 40

18. The property that depends on the structural arrangement of atoms within the molecules

a. Constitutive property

b. Additive property

c. Colligative property

d. Both colligative property and additive property

19 / 40

19. The property of a solution that depends on the number of the solute particles in solution is known as

a. Constitutive property

b. Additive property

c. Colligative property

d. Both colligative property and additive property

20 / 40

20. A fixed dose of drug that follows 1 order elimination depends on:

a. dose of drug

b. dosing intervals

c. elimination Half-life

21 / 40

21. FDA Fast Track what this mean:

a. For drug that shows promising results for life-threatening disease with other drugs available can treat it

b. drug that shows promising results for life-threatening disease with NO others available can do that

c. drug that shows cost effectiveness

d. drug with side effects

22 / 40

22. When the pharmacopeia put the drug as phase 4

a. safety

b. potency

c. ndication

23 / 40

23. Pharmacy and therapeutic committee

a. storage of drug

b. adverse effect

c. expiration of drug

d. maintain of formulary of drug

24 / 40

24. Storage of narcotic prescriptions according to Saudi national regulations

a. 6 months

b. 12 months

c. 24 months

d. 36 months

25 / 40

25. 5ml of injection that conc. 0.4% calculate the amount of drug?

a. .2mg

b. 200mg

c. 2mg

d. 2000mg

e. 20mg

26 / 40

26. Amount of drug is 5 mg in 1 ml what the amount of drug in 1 tsp in microgram

a. 5

b. 25

c. 500

d. 2500

e. 25000

27 / 40

27. Ideal volume of eye solution:

a. 500micro

b. 50-250 micro

c. 10-50 micro

d. <10 micro

28 / 40

28. Purified water can not used in:

a. Ophthalmic preparation

b. IV solution

c. Oral preparation

d. Oral suspension

e. Ophthalmic preparation & IV solution both

29 / 40

29. 5ml of injection that conc. 0.4% calculate the amount of drug?

a. 0.2mg

b. 200mg

c. 2mg

d. 2000mg

30 / 40

30. Keep in cool place means:

a. in refrigerator

b. in freezing

c. at 10-20 c

d. in refrigerator and at 10-20 c both

31 / 40

31. Comparison between sterile water &water for injection:

a. pyrogen free

b. free from sod. Chloride

c. pyrogen free and free from sod. Chloride

d. Isotonic

e. free from bacteria

32 / 40

32. Light sensitive drug should be storage in:

a. Colorless glass

b. Colorless plastic

c. Amber glass

d. Amber plastic

e. Light resistant container

33 / 40

33. (GMP) mean:

a. Good Manufacturing Protocol or Good Manufacturing Practice

b. Good Manu factor Product

c. General Manufacturing Protocol

d. General Manufacturing Product

34 / 40

34. One of following NOT used to cover bitter taste:

a. Film coat

b. Enteric coat

c. Grinding of tablet

35 / 40

35. Solutions are better than solid dosage form coz:

a. Accurate dose

b. Easy to handle

c. More stable

d. Faster action

36 / 40

36. Normal water used for:

a. Eye preparption

b. Parentral preparation

c. Solution

d. Emultion

e. External preparation

37 / 40

37. 2 mg\L solution, according ppm:

a. 2 ppm

b. 0.02 ppm

c. 0.002 ppm

d. 0.0002 ppm

38 / 40

38. Ointment used for:

a. Carrier of drug

b. Emollient

c. Carrier of drug and Emollient

d. Increase absorption

e. Increase distribution

39 / 40

39. All factors affect on renal clearance except:

a. Age

b. Sex

c. Both

d. Disease state

40 / 40

40. About ophthalmic preparation as single dose which is false:

a. sterile

b. purified

c. should cotain preservative

Your score is

The average score is 50%

Time Over ....

Anatomy and Physiology MCQs 1

Anatomy and Physiology MCQs For Pharmacist Exam Part 1

In Part 1 of Anatomy and Physiology MCQs, we have included those questions which have been asked in many state or other pharmacist vacancy exams, and in this quiz, we have also explained the answers.

Please login to participate in this Quiz!

NameEmail

1 / 60

1. Nuclear envelope reappears at__________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Metaphase

b) Cytokinesis

c) Telophase

d) Anaphase

Nuclear envelope reappears at telophase. Telophase- During this phase, chromosomes disappears (become chromatin), nuclear membrane reforms, nucleoli reappears,. Telophase is the fifth and finalphase of mitosis, the process that separates the duplicated genetic material carried in the nucleus of a parent cell into two identical daughter cells.

2 / 60

2. The chronic inflammation of a delayed hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by:

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a) Bradykinin

b) Lymphokines

c) Histamine

d) Glucagon

Histomine - a chemical found in some of the body's calls caused many of the symtoms of allergic such as runny nose are sneezing when a person is allergic to a particular substance such as a food or dust, the Immune system mistakenly belieuss that us usually harmless substance is act orally harmful to the body

3 / 60

3. Red cell count is carried out by ______

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a) Sphygmomanometer

b) Haemocytometer

c) Haemoglobinometer

d) Electrogram

Red cell refers to red blood cells also known as erythrocytes which carries oxygen to the body from the lungs. A healthy person has 5–5.5 million RBCs per 3mm of blood which have lifespan of 120 days.
• Haemocytometer is a device that is used for counting red blood cells, it contains different grids and has specific area and volume to count the number of RBCs in a particular volume of blood.
• Haemoglobinometer is a device used for measuring the hemoglobin concentration of the blood.
• A sphygmomanometer is an instrument used to determine blood pressure.

4 / 60

4. An example of haemostatic suture is:

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a) Sterile catgut

b) Sterile linen suture

c) Oxidised cellulose

d) Sterile polyester suture

The Atlantic cod is a benthopelagic fish of the family gadidae widely consumed by human It is also commercially known as cod or codling Dry cod may be prepared as unsalted salt stack fish and as cured slot cod or clipfish.

5 / 60

5. The life span of WBC is approximately ..........

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a) Less than 10 days

b) Between 20 to 30 days

c) Between 30 to 45 days

d) Between 10 to 20 days

White blood cells, also called leukocytes or leucocytes, are the cells of the immune system that are involved in protecting the body against both infectious diseases and foreign invaders.
• The life span of the WBC is between 10 to 20 days. It is mainly responsible for the protection of the body
from diseases.
• The life span of the RBCs is 20–120 days.
• The life span of the blood platelets is 3–5 days.
Note: According to commission right answer is option (c).

6 / 60

6. Oogenesis is an example of___________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Specialisation of cell

b) Mitosis

c) DNA replication

d) Meiosis

Oagenesis is an example of meiosis. Meiosisproduces sex cells or gametes, Oagenesis is a process which creates female gametes called ovum. Meiosis is a type of cell division in sexually reproducing organisms that reduces the number of cloromosomes in gametes.

7 / 60

7. Muscle relation is completed in which phase of general anesthesia?

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Phase-II

b) Phase-IV

c) Phase-III

d) Phase-I

Stage of general anesthesia:- Before they had machines to track our vital signs during general anesthesia, doctor come up with a monitoring system to keep patients safe. They divided the system into four stage -
• Stage 1. Induction
• Stage 2. Excitement or delirium
• Stage 3. surgical Anesthesia
• Stage 4. Over dose.
State : 3. Surgical anesthesia:- At this stage surgery can takes place our eyes stop moving muscle completely relax, and we may stop breathing without the help of machines. The anesthesiogist will keep we at this stage until the procedures is over.

8 / 60

8. A digestive enzyme functional only in infants is__________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Gastric lipase

b) Intestinal lipase

c) Chymotrypsin

d) Lactose

A digestive enzyme functional only in infants in gastric lipase. Intragastric lipolysis is probably of major importance in the newborn and especially in the premature infants. Gastric lipase is essential for infant fat digestion.

9 / 60

9. The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in alveoli is..

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a) 40 mm Hg

b) 105 mm Hg

c) 45 mm Hg

d) 160 mm Hg

Partial pressure is the amount of pressure each gas in a mixture exerts. Gas will flow from one area with greater partial pressure to another with lower partial pressure. The partial pressure of carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the diffusion site) is 40 mmHg.
• The partial pressure of oxygen (O2) at alveoli is 104 mmHg.

10 / 60

10. Mitochondria are sites of_________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Phosphorylation

b) Photolysis

c) Oxidative phosphorylation

d) Starch synthesis

Oxidative phosphorylation is the final step incellular respiration, it occurs in the mitochondria. It is the principal purpose of oxygen respiration and the principal use of breathed in oxygen is to generate energy in the body.

11 / 60

11. Which of the following cranial nerve is known as facial nerve?

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a) Cranial nerve VII

b) Cranial nerve V

c) Cranial nerve VI

d) Cranial nerve VIII

Facial nerve is the 7th cranial nerve and carries nerve fibers that control facial movement and expression. The facial nerve also carries nerves that are involved in taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue and producing tears.

12 / 60

12. The term cytoplasm was coined by__________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Flemming

b) Strasburger

c) Hanstein

d) Sachs

Term cytoplasm refers to the living substance or protoplast found within a cell, including the Nucleus, Eduard strans burger created the word cytoplasm.
→ The cytoplasm is the gel- like fluid inside the cell. It is the medium for chemical reaction. It provides a plate form upon which other organelles can operate within the cell.

13 / 60

13. Carp metacarpal joint of the thumb is an example of :

GPSSB Jr. Pharmacist (08.05.2022)

a) Saddle joint

b) Hanger, joint

c) Pivot joint

d) Ball and socked joint

The carpometacarpal joint is a synovial saddle-shaped joint that serves as the articulation between the trapezium and the base of the first metacarpal the joint's primary function is to optimize the pinch function of the hand.

14 / 60

14. The middle protective covering layer of brain is____________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Arachnoid mater

b) Dura mater

c) Pons

d) Pia mater

The middle protective covering layer of brain is Arachnoid mater. There present three meninges layers that constitute the outer layer, the dura mater, a thin middle layer called the Arachnoid and the inner most layer called the pia mater.
* Dura mater give a protective shield for the brain and the spinal cord helps prevent the C.N.S. from gostling by fastening it to the skull.
* Arachnoid mater is defined as a middle meninges layer that connect the dura mater & pia, mater.
* The pia mater is composed of a rich supply of blood vessels to provide the Nervous tissue with nutrient. Pia mater usually cover the spinal cord and is made up of two layers.

15 / 60

15. The following organs are part of male reproductive system except;

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a) Urethra

b) Ureter

c) Testis

d) Vas deferen

The ureters are tubular structures approximately 20–23 cm in adults that pass from the pelvis of each kidney into the bladder. Form the renal pelvis they descend on top of the psoas major muscle to reach the brim of the pelvis.

16 / 60

16. Cytochromes are_________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) H2O acceptors

b) H2 acceptors

c) O2 acceptors

d) Electron acceptors

The role of cytochrome c is to carry electrons from one complex of integral membrane proteins of the inner mitochondrial membrane to another, cytochrome are electron acceptors.

17 / 60

17. Select the correct name for cranial nerve -X

(Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist 05.02.2023)

a) Vagus

b) Facial

c) Olfactory

d) Optic

There are 12 cranial nerves in our body, each having a particular function.
• Cranial nerve 3 is the oculomotor nerve which helps the movements of the muscles of the eyes.
• The vagus nerve is verifiably referred to as the pneumogastric nerve. It is the longest cranial nerve. It is the 10th cranial nerve and interfaces with the lungs, heart, and stomach-related lot.

18 / 60

18. Which ion is essential for muscle contraction?

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Cl

b) K

c) Ca

d) Na

The essential muscle contraction is caused by calcium ions. These calcium ions bind to the protein complex troponin in order to remove the masking of active site on actin. This results in the exposure of the active- binding sites on the actin for myosin.

19 / 60

19. Calcitonin is secreted by__________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Pituitary gland

b) Pancreas

c) Adrenal

d) Thyroid

Calcitonin is secreted by thyroid. Calcitonin is a 32 amino acid hormone secreted by the C- cells of thyroid gland.
Pituitary gland :- Its function including growth, metabolism, reproduction, lactation, water and sodium (salt) balance, labour and child birth.
Pancrease :- Pancrease creates natural juices called pancreatic enzyme to beak down food. These Juice travel through our pancrease.
Adrenal gland :- Adrenal gland produce hormone that help regulate our metabolism, immune system, blood pressure response stress and other essential function.

20 / 60

20. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of left sided heart failure?

GPSSB Jr. Pharmacist (08.05.2022)

a) Peripheral edema

b) Jugular venous distension

c) Hepatomegaly

d) Bilateral rales

Bilateral rales is a sign or symptom of left sided heart failure.
• Hepatomegaly is prominent in patients with chronic right-sided heart failure, but it may occur rapidly in acute heart failure.
• Peripheral edema (PE) is an accumulation of fluid in the interstitial space that occurs as the capillary filtration exceeds the limits of lymphatic drainage.

21 / 60

21. Antiageing hormone is_________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022

a) Estrogen

b) Melatonin

c) Thyroxine

d) Testosterone

Antiaging hormone is melatonin. Melatonin is a hormone produced in the glandula pinealis that follows a circadian light dependent rhythm of secretion

22 / 60

22. Smallest bone of the body is ...............

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a) Stapes

b) Femur

c) Incus

d) Malleus

The human body consists of both long and short bones. The longest bone is the thigh bone but the smallest and the lightest bone in the human body is the stapes or stirrup found in our middle ear.
• There are three bones in the middle ear-malleus, stapes, and incus.

23 / 60

23. White matter is external and grey matter is internal in _________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Cerebellum

b) Medulla oblongata

c) Cerebellum & Medulla oblongata

d) Cerebrum

The medulla oblongata consists of both cells and fibres, which are similarly to those in the spinal cord, the cells or grey matter being on the inside and the fibres of white matter on the outside. It lies at the base of the skull just in front o the foramen magnum and links the pons and spinal cord.

24 / 60

24. Chemoreceptor trigger zone is an area of the_____ and plays role in stimulating _______.

GPSSB Jr. Pharmacist (08.05.2022)

a) Medulla Oblongata, Emesis

b) Medulla Oblongata, Respiration

c) Cerebrum, Respiration

d) Cerebrum, Emesis

Chemoreceptor trigger zone is an area of the Medulla oblongata and plays role in stimulating emesis.

25 / 60

25. The formation of plaque inside the coronary artery due to deposition of the lipid content is known as ............

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a) Thrombosis

b) Myocardial infarction

c) Embolism

d) Atherosclerosis

Atherosclerosis is the thickening or hardening of the arteries caused by a buildup of plaque in the inner lining of an artery. Risk factors may include high cholesterol and triglyceride levels, high blood pressure smoking, diabetes, obesity, physical activity, and eating saturated fats.

26 / 60

26. Sebaceous glands are___________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Apocrine

b) Holocrine

c) None of these

d) Mesocrine

Sebaceous glands are holocrins glands. sebaceous glands produce sebum via holocrine secretion, a largely uncharacterized mode of programmed cell death that contributes to the homeostasis and barrier function of the skin.

27 / 60

27. The most common respiratory substrate is_________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Sucrose

b) Glucose

c) Glycogen

d) Maltose

Glucose is the most common respiratory substrate. One molecules of glucose produces 38 molecules of ATP. So its an instant energy source. It is also abundant and easily stored in the body in the form of glycogen. It is also stored in plants in the form of starch and glycoconjugates.

28 / 60

28. Urea formation occurs in____________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Liver

b) Spleen

c) Heart

d) Kidney

Urea is formed in are body during nitrogen metabolism the hepatic cells in the liver. Urea is an excretory product and it enters into the blood, after it's formation in the liver, when blood reaches the kidney, which filters it out from the blood and hence excretes urea out through the urine.

29 / 60

29. β-cells of Pancreatic is lets secret ________.

GPSSB Jr. Pharmacist (08.05.2022)

a) Insulin

b) Glueagon

c) Somatostatin

d) Panereatic polypeptide

The Pancreatic beta cells are Endocrine cells the synthetize, store and release insulin the antihyperglycemic hormone that antagonizes glucagon, Growth hormone. glucocorticosteroids epinephrine and other hyperglycemic hormones, to maintain circulating glucose concentrations within a narrow physiologic range.Pancreatic polypeptide (PP) is an endogenous peptide hormone secreted by the cells, also called PP cells of the islets of langerhans of pancreas. Mostly postprandially.

30 / 60

30. Bile is formed in________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Gall bladder

b) Liver

c) Blood

d) Spleen

Bile is an aqueous liquid solution produced in the liver. It consists mainly bile salts, conjugated bilirubin with some electrolytes and water.

31 / 60

31. What happens when the level of bilirubin in the blood increases?

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a) Jaundice

b) Diabetes

c) Cancer

d) Alzhelmer's

Jauindice is a condition in which the whites of the eyes and mucous membranes turm yellow because of a high level of bilirubin a yellow - orange bile pigment jaundice has many couses including hepatitis , gall stones and tomars . In adults jaundice usually do ent need to bet treated.
Jaundis two types -
(1) Physiological jaundice
(2) Pathaphysi ological jaundice

32 / 60

32. Ganglion refers to___________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Collection of numerous axons in Peripheral Nervous System.

b) Collection of cell bodies of neurons in Peripheral Nervous System.

c) Collection of axons in Central Nervous System.

d) Collection of cell bodies of neurons in Central Nervous System.

Ganglion refers to collection of cell bodies of neurons in peripheral Nervous system. A ganglion is a cluster of nerve cells found in the P.N.S. The cells that are specific to a ganglion are called ganglion cells. However the term is some time used to describe retinal ganglion cells. The main component of the ganglion a cell body called the somata and associate dendritic structure.

33 / 60

33. Persons having blood group 'A' makes ____

UP NHM Pharmacist (28.12.2022)

a) Anti-A

b) Anti-B

c) Anti-A and Anti-B

d) Anti-O

Persons having blood group 'A' makes AntiB.

• The Anti-A, Anti-B, and Anti-A,B, reagents are used in the red blood cell determination of the ABO blood group.

34 / 60

34. Which is not a true for Insulin?

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) It combines with zinc to lose activity

b) It is inactivated by digestive enzymes

c) It is soluble in water

d) It is a amphoteric protein

Insulin is a small protein consisting 51 amino acids in it's molecule. It works as a hormone and produced in the pancreas and added to the blood after meals when sugar levels are high it controls the sugar level in blood by allowing cells to absorb glucose. Insulin do not combine with zinc instead in the presence of zinc improves the peripheral insulin senstivity.

35 / 60

35. Heart rate of 160-180 refers to________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Adam syndrome

b) Atrial flutter

c) Atrial fibrillation

d) Ectopic activity

Inregular and fast rate of heartbeat (ranging 160-180) is termed as ectopic activity and it happens when our heart contracts (beats) too soon.

36 / 60

36. The elimination of insoluble calcium phosphate takes place by____________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Liver

b) Large intestine

c) Skin

d) Kidney

The calcium ions binds to the phosphates and are present in the dietary food. Sometimes, calcium phosphate are consumed as an antacid. The calcium phosphate is a salt which is insoluble in water. The calcium ions are absorbed by the cells of the intestine as per requirement. The excess of calcium and phosphate ions are excreted by the large intestine in the form of paeces.

37 / 60

37. All of the following are the disadvantages of diabetes, EXCEPT:

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a) Kidney damage

b) Neuropathy

c) Hypothyroid

d) Retinopathy

A condition in which the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone. Hypothyroidism deficiency of thyroid hormones can disrupt such things as heart rate body temperatures and all aspect of metabolism. Hypothyroidsm is most prevalent in older in older woman.

38 / 60

38. _______ excreted by the respiratory system.

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a) Carbon dioxide

b) Faeces

c) Protein

d) Urea

Corbon dioxide is a naturally occurring chemical compound that plays an integral role in the earth's ecosystem . It is essential for photosynthesis which all plants need to survive carbondioxide also helps regulate the temperature of the atmosphere and the plant as well. They are often referred to as green house gases because they allow sunlight to enter but do not allow it to leave thus heating the lower atmosphere. but corbon dioxide is exhaled by the respirating system.

39 / 60

39. Residual air mostly occurs in__________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Trachea

b) Nostrils

c) Bronchus

d) Alveoli

Residual air mostly occurs in alveoli. The residual volume (RV) is the alveoli of the lungs, after respiratory. The lungs are never left completely empty, there is always some air left in the lungs after a maximum exhalation.

40 / 60

40. Right-sided cardiac failure is called:

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a) Congestive cardiac failure

b) Acute cardiac failure

c) Chronic cardiac failure

d) Left ventricular failure

Congestive heart failure is a long term Condition that happens when your heart can't pump blood well enough to give our body a normal supply blood and fluids collect in our lungs and legs over time medications and other treatments.

41 / 60

41. Light rays entering the eye is controlled by __________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Cornea

b) Iris

c) Lens

d) Pupil

Light rays entering the eye is controlled by pupil, lets into our eyes as the muscles of our iris change its shape. The lens in our eye focuses light then goes to the back of our eye and hits our retina.

42 / 60

42. Which one of the following is not a function of Liver?

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Detoxification of various drugs.

b) Secretion of glucagon

c) Storage site for vitamins

d) Site for metabolism of proteins

Secretion of glucagon is not a function of Liver.
Function of Liver →
• Bile production and excretion
• Excretion of bilirubin, cholesterol hormone and drugs.
• Metabolism of fats, protein and carbohydrates.
• Enzyme Activation
• Storage of glycogen, vitamins and minerals
• Synthesis of plasma proteins, such as albumin and clotting factor.

43 / 60

43. Progestational phase of menstrual cycle is antagonized by___________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Luteinizing hormone

b) Prolactin

c) Oestrogen

d) Progesterone

Progestational phase of menstrual cycle is antagonised by Oestrogen. The menstrual cycle is governed by an interaction between reproductive hormone (L.H,F.S.H, oestradiol and progesterone) that result in growth of a follicle, ovulation [release of egg from the ovary into the fallopian tubes].

44 / 60

44. The germinal epithelium of ovary is___________

GPSSB Jr. Pharmacist (08.05.2022)

a) Simple cuboidal epithelium

b) Stratified cuboidal epithelium

c) Not attempted

d) Stratified columnar epithelium

e) Simple columnar epithelium

The ovarian surface epithelium, also called the germinal epithelium of waldeyer, or coelomic epithelium is a layer of simple squamous to cuboidal epithelial cell covering the ovary.

45 / 60

45. Agranulocytes are___________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Eosinophils

b) Basophils

c) Neutrophils

d) None of these

Agranulocytes are white blood cells that have no distinct granules in their cytoplasm. Agranulocytes orginates from the lymph nodes.
• Agranulocytes are known as mononuclear leukocytes.
• Granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils).
• Agranulocytes (lymphocytes and monocytes).

46 / 60

46. Which of the following antigens are present on the RBC in the person having blood group O?

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a) Antigen-A

b) Antigen-B

c) Both

d) None

A Blood group is a classification of blood-based on the presence and absence of antibodies and inherited antigenic substances on the surface of red blood cells. This antigen may be proteins, carbohydrates, glycoproteins or glycolipids, depending on the blood group system. Blood group O has no antigens but both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma. Blood group AB has both A and B antigens, but no antibodies.

47 / 60

47. An adult has ________ number teeth's of incisors in total.

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) 2

b) 8

c) 6

d) 4

An Adult has 8 number teeth's of incisor in total. Human teeth function to mechanically break down items of food by cutting & crushing the food material.
• Human have four types of Teeth -
• Incisors
• Canines
• Premolars
• Molars
• Human dental formula =2123/2123

48 / 60

48. There are ______ isolated operable irregular bone in the vertebral column

UP NHM Pharmacist (28.12.2022)

a) 20

b) 24

c) 15

d) 10

There are 24 isolated operable irregular bone in the vertebral column. Vertebrae are the 33 individual bones that inter lock with each other to form the spinal column. The vertebrae are numbered and divided into regions-cervical. Thoracic, lumber, sacrum and coccyx.
Only the top bones are moveable, the vertebrae of sacrum and coccyx are fused. The vertebrae in each region have unique features that help them perform their main functions.

49 / 60

49. Sphincter of oddi is present at exit of__________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Oesophagus

b) Urinary bladder

c) Stomach

d) Gall bladder

The sphincter of oddi is the muscular valve surrounding the exit of the gall bladder i,e at the exit of bile duct and pancreatic duct into the duodenum.

50 / 60

50. Which of the following pairs of chemotherapeutic agents is most commonlyused as maintenance in the treatment of Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)?

GPSSB Jr. Pharmacist (08.05.2022)

a) Vincristine, Imatinib

b) Fludarabine Cyclophosphamide

c) Dauroribicin, Gemcitabine

d) Mereaptopurine, Methotrexate

Mereaptopurine Methotrexate pairs of chemotherapeutic agents is most commonly used as maintenance in the treatment of Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL).

51 / 60

51. Tidal volume is equal to:

GPSSB Jr. Pharmacist (08.05.2022)

a) (Functional residual capacity) – (Expiratory reserve volume)

b) (Total lung capacity) – (Vital capacity)

c) (Inspiratory capacity) – (Inspiratory reserve volume)

d) (Residual volume) + (Expiratory reserve volume)

Tidal volume is equal to (Inspiratory capacity) – (Inspiratory reserve volume) inspiratory capacity is the total volume of air that can be inhaled after a normal expiration. includes tidal volume and inspiratory reserve volume IC = TV + 1RV.

52 / 60

52. Glomerular filtrate is equal to:

GPSSB Jr. Pharmacist (08.05.2022)

a) Blood – (RBCs – WBCs)

b) Serum + Plasma Proteins

c) Blood – (Blood Cells + Plasma Proteins)

d) Plasma

Glomerular filtrate is equal to blood (Blood cells + Plasma Proteins).

53 / 60

53. During the embryonic development midbrain is developed from?

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a) Rhombencephalon

b) Telencephelon

c) Procencephelon

d) Mesencephalon

The middle vesicle is the "mesencephalon" which is the precursor of midbrain structures, the most anterior of these embryonic brain vesicles is called the "Prosencephalon" which is the embryonic precursor of
the forebrain, and the most posterior is the "rhombencephalon" which will become the hindbrain.

54 / 60

54. A person with O blood group can receive blood from a person having ___ blood group.

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a) O

b) A

c) A, AB

d) B

A blood type is a classification of blood-based on the presence and absence of antibodies and in hirite antigenic substances on the & surface of red blood cells. These antigens may be proteins body glycoprotins or glycolipids depending on the blood group system.

55 / 60

55. Nose, pharynx, windpipe, trachia and lungs are located in _____

UP NHM Pharmacist (28.12.2022)

a) Cardiovascular system

b) Excretory system

c) Renal system

d) Respiratory system

The respiratory system starts at the nose and mouth and continues through the airways and the lungs.

• The excretory system is a vital biological system that removes excess and waste, products from the body to maintain homeostasis.
• Cardiovascular system, which is made up of our heart and blood vessels is a crucial part of our body.

56 / 60

56. Bronchial obstruction is a common symptom of:

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a) Lung cancer

b) Cancer

c) Liver failure

d) Asthma

Recurrent episodes of acute shartness of breath typically accurring at night or the early morning hours, are the cordinal manifestation of bronchial asthma, farther symptoms include cough wheezing and feeling of tightness in the chest.

57 / 60

57. In the presence of inflammation, ________ is/ are raised.

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a) Ceruloplasmin

b) Ferritin

c) Platelets

d) Fibrinogen

Platetets are pieces of very large cells in the bone morrow called me gakargoctles. they help form blood clots to slow or stop bleeding and to help wounds heal or having platetets that don't work as they should can couse problems.

58 / 60

58. Longest cells in human body are____________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Heart muscle cells

b) Leg muscle cells

c) Bone cells

d) Nerve cells

Longest cells in Human body are Nerve cells are also called Neurons that are found in the Nervous system they can be up to 3 feet long.
- Nerve cells are only present in animals. Nerve cells is an excitable and specialized cell of the Nervous tissue which helps in proper functioning of the brain and coordination of other parts of the body.
- Neurons are divided into 3 Types : Sensory neurons (stimuli response) Motor response (receive signals) and interneurons (connects one neuron to Another Neuron).

59 / 60

59. Male sex hormone testosterone is secreted by__________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Sertoli cells

b) Epididymis

c) Spermatogenic

d) Leydig cells

Leydig cells are the source of androgenic hormone i.e testosterone in males. Leydig cells (LC) are present in the testicular interstitial tissue and their main function is to produce testosterone.

60 / 60

60. It is found only in muscles and this binds oxygen molecules

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a) Sarcolemma

b) Myoglobin

c) Myofibril

d) Mitochondrion

Myoglobin is a protein located primarily in the striated muscles of vertebrates MB is the geneoncoding myoglobin is humans. It encodes a single polypeptide chain with one oxygen binding site Myoglobin contains heme prosthetic group that can reversibly bind to oxygen

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The average score is 60%

Anatomy and Physiology MCQs 2

Anatomy and Physiology Online Quiz For Pharmacist Exam Part 2

Get ready to test your knowledge in the field of Anatomy and Physiology. Please click on the right option to answer the questions. Good luck!

Please login to participate in this Quiz!

NameEmail

1 / 60

1. Which veins drain directly into inferior vena cava?

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual (04.08.2022)

a) Hepatic vein

b) Splenic vein

c) Superior mesentric vein

d) Inferior mesentric vein

The hepatic vein carried the blood away from the inferior vena cava, which leads to the right atrium, one
of the four chambers of the heart.
• They are usually there- RHV, MHV and LHV.
• Vena cava is the largest vein in the body.

2 / 60

2. In healthy adult, glomercular filtration rate is_______

UP NHM Pharmacist (28.12.2022)

a) 50 ml/min

b) 80 ml/min

c) 125 ml/min

d) 180 ml/min

In a healthy person the GFR is about 125 ml/min, which makes 180 liters per day.

3 / 60

3. Human Serum Albumin has a molecular weight of_________

AMC Pharmacist (15.05.2022)

a) 59000

b) 65000

c) 34000

d) 44000

The human serum albumin is the most abundant protein in the human body. The molecular weight of human serum albumin is 65,000 Dalton.

4 / 60

4. Cere brosides are ____

UP NHM Pharmacist (28.12.2022)

a) Sulpholipids

b) Glycolipids

c) Phospholipids

d) Drived lipids

Cerebrosides the simplest neutral glycolipids/ glycosphingolipids have a single sugar that is linked to ceramide.

5 / 60

5. Which is used in cheese manufacturing as a substitute of rennin?

Kerala PSC Pharmacist Gr.II (04.01.2021)

a) Papain

b) Urokinase

c) Collagenase

d) Pepsin

Pepsin is used in cheese manufacturing as substitute of rennin. The key & characteristics step in the manufacture of rennet coagulated cheeses is the coagulation of milk through the limited proteolytic action certain proteinases, called rennnets. Several proteinases can coagulate milk but only a few are suitable for cheese production. This led to a search for rennet substitute, four of which are commercially successful: bovine, pepsin and proteinases from the fungi R. meihei, R. pusillus and C. parasitic. All successful rennet substitutes are aspartyl (acid) proteinases.

6 / 60

6. Which of the following is a plasma kinin?

Gujarat VMC Pharmacist (28.03.2021)

a) Histamine

b) Rennin

c) Kallidin

d) Serotonin

Kallidin is a bioactive kinin formed in response to injury from kininogen precursors through the action of kallikreins .
• The activation of plasma kallikrein - kinin leads to the activation of several sequential effector proenzymes resulting in the induction of genes and activation of biomolecules involved in the molecular mechanisms of vasodilation , blood coagulation and fibrinolysis.

7 / 60

7. Main muscle of shoulder is_________

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) Deltoid

b) Suprasinatus

c) Trapezius

d) Gluteus

Deltoid muscles are the main muscles of our shoulder has ball-and -socked joint that connects the arm to the trunk of are body. Deltoid muscles help to move our arms in different directions. These muscles protect and stabilize the shoulder joint,

8 / 60

8. Largest organ is the body is_________

VSSC Pharmacist-A (07.11.2021)

a) Skin

b) Bone

c) Liver

d) Lungs

Largest organ is the body is skin. It can seem counterintuitive since many of our other organs are unseen. The skin, made up of three of the layers the Epidermis the Dermis and hypodermis is an external organ.

9 / 60

9. Which one of the following statement is true for-cancer cells:

AMC Pharmacist (15.05.2022)

a) Cancer cells require stimulation by growth factors (c)

b) Cancer cells are highly sensitive to growth inhibitory signals

c) Oncoproteins produced by cancer cells act a neighboring cells

d) Cancer cells produce Oncoproteins in the absence of growth factors or external stimuli

Cancer cells:-
• Grow in the absence of signals telling them to grow.
• Ignore signals that normally tell cell to stop dividing or to die invade into nearby areas and spread to other areas of the body.
• Hide from the immune system, that normally eliminates damaged or abnormal cells.
• Trick the immune system into helping cancer cells stay a Live and grow.
• Mutations destroy telomerase intibitor.

10 / 60

10. Thromboxane is mainly synthesized by_______

VSSC Pharmacist-A (07.11.2021)

a) Endothelium

b) Platelets

c) Spleen

d) Lungs

Thromboxane is mainly synthesized by platelets. Thromboxanes, a substance produced by platelets, lead to occlusion of blood vessel by fueling blood clots inside the vascular system, this has been implicated in many cardiovascular conditions ranging from heart attack to stroke.

11 / 60

11. Choose the correct statement about bronchus.

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) The left bronchus is shorter

b) The left bronchus divides into two

c) The right bronchus is wider

d) The right bronchus is more vetical

Bronchi is a wind pipe that distribute the air within our lungs. The key difference between right and left bronchus is that the right bronchus is shorter and wider while the left bronchus is longer and narrower.
Note: According to the commission right answer is (b).

12 / 60

12. How many pairs of intercostals muscles are present?

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) 14

b) 11

c) 12

d) 13

There are 11 pairs of intercostal muscles present is intercostal spaces, these are many different groups of muscles that run between the ribs and help form and move the chest wall. There are 3 groups: external, internal and innermost intercostal muscles.

Ans. (c): Estrogens are a group of hormones that play an important role in the normal sexual and Reproductiove development in female.
• In addition to regulation the menstrual cycle, estrogen affects the reproductive tract, the urinary tract, the heart and blood vessels, breasts , skin pelvic muscle etc.
• Some hereditary and other conditions can lead to high levels of estrogen in male which can results in :
• Infertility
• Erectile dysfunction.
• Longer breasts, known as gynecomastia.

13 / 60

13. Which of the following is a female sex hormone?

Gujarat VMC Pharmacist (28.03.2021)

a) Estrogen

b) Benzesterol

c) Stilbesterol

d) Testisteribe

14 / 60

14. Melatonin is secreted by__________

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual (04.08.2022)

a) Hypothalamus

b) Pineal gland

c) Adrenal cortex

d) Melanocytes

Melatoninn is a hormone secreted by the enigmatic pineal gland in response to darkness, hence named as the hormone of darkness.
• The pineal gland, conarium or epiphysis cerebri, is a small endocrine gland in the brain of most vertebrates.
• Melatonin found in plants and animals. It is primarily known in animals as a hormone.

15 / 60

15. Nissl granules occur in_________

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) Nerve cells

b) Chondrocytes

c) Mast cells

d) Bone cells

Nissl's granules are the large granular body found in neurons (or- nerve cells). These granules are rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) with rosettes of free rebosomes and are the sites of protein synthesis.

16 / 60

16. Angiology refers to___________

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) Articular system

b) Integumentary system

c) Circulatory system

d) Skeletal system

Angiology deals with circulatory system of our body. It is the branch of science which deals with the study of blood vessels, under this branch of medical science diagnosis and treatment of diseases associated with the circulatory system and the lymphatic system.

17 / 60

17. The term coronary artery disease is used to designate all of the following conditions, EXCEPT____

Kerala PSC Pharmacist Gr.III (22.12.2021)

a) Myocardial Infraction

b) Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)

c) Angina Pectoris

d) Sudden cardiac death

Heart failure, also known as congestive heart failure is a condition that develops when your heart doesn’t pump enough blood for our body's needs this can happen if our heart can fill up with enough blood. It can also happen when our heart is too weak to pump properly.
→ Angina pectoris is the medical term for chest pain or discomfort due to coronary heart disease.
→ sudden cardiac death (SCD) is by unexpected and cardiac in nature.

18 / 60

18. Indicate muscles, which are more resistant to block recover more arapidly______

Gujarat VMC Pharmacist (28.03.2021)

a) Diaphragm

b) Hand

c) Leg

d) Neck

The diaphragm is the most highly resistant muscle to NMBAs as well as the first to recover but the occurrence of its dysfunction has been implicated in postoperative respiratory failure, especially when mechanical ventilation is prolonged. Therefore studying diaphragmatic function in a preoperative context is extremely important.

19 / 60

19. Arch of aorta lies at what vertebral level?

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual (04.08.2022)

a) T5

b) T6

c) T4

d) T2

The initial portion of the aorta ascending behind the sternum is referred to as the ascending aorta extends approximately to the level of the T4 vertebral body. From this point, it is known as the aortic arch.

20 / 60

20. Which of the following will result in very closest value to the Glomerular Filteration Rate (GFR)?

AMC Pharmacist (15.05.2022)

a) Measure of Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)

b) Creatinine Clearance

c) Insulin Clearance

d) Albumin Clearance

The creatinie clearance (crcl) rate approximates the calculation of Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) since the glomerulus freely filters creatinine. However it is also secreted by the per tubular capillaries causing crcl to overestimate the GFR by approximately 10% to 20%

21 / 60

21. An organ that is not a component of the urinary system, is ______

UP NHM Pharmacist (28.12.2022)

a) Adrenal gland

b) Urinary bladder

c) Urethra

d) Ureter

An organ or structure that is not a component of the urinary system is the Adrenal gland. The urinary system consists of ureters, kidneys, nephrons, urinary bladder, and urethra.
• The ureter is a small tube, or duct that connects the bladder and kidneys. urine passes through the ureter from the kidneys to the bladder, the urethra is the tubular path that connects the bladder to the body's exterior, allowing urine to exit the body.

22 / 60

22. The cardiovascular disease associated with the disorder of heart rate or rhythm is called:

Gujarat VMC Pharmacist (28.03.2021)

a) Angina pectoris

b) Myocardial infarction

c) Ischemia

d) Arrhythmia

A heart arrhythmia is an irregular heartbeat. Heart rhythm problems occur when the electrical signals that coordinate the hearts beats don't work properly. The faulty signaling causes the heart to beat too fast or irregularly.
• In general , heart arrhythmias are grouped by the speed of the heart rate, for example -
• Tachycardia is a fast heart. The resting heart rate is greater than 100 beats a minute.
• Bradycardia is a slow heartbeat. The resting heart rate is less than 60 beats a minute.

23 / 60

23. Which one of the following is not a function of lymphatic system?

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) Return tissue fluid to blood stream

b) Protection of body from foreign material

c) Transport of fats

d) Transport of dietary protein

Lymphatic system is the part of are body's immune system, it helps in managing the fluid levels in the body, react to bacteria deals with cancer cells , lymphatic system also absorbs some of the fats in our diet from the intestine but not proteins, therefore transport of dietary protein is not the function of lymphatic system.

24 / 60

24. In Central nervous system, the nerves that arise from cerebrum and brain stem are called as_______

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual (04.08.2022)

a) Cranial nerves

b) Spinal nerves

c) Temporal nerves

d) Frontal nerves

In central nervous system, the nerves that arise from cerebrum and brain stem are called as cranial nerves. The cranial nerves are a set of 12 paired nerves in the back of our brain cranial nerves send electrical signal to our brain. Face, neck and torso. Our cranial nerves help us taste smell, hear and fell sensations. These also help us to make facial expressions, blink our eyes and move our tongue.

25 / 60

25. Which of the following hormones inhibits the secretion of insulin, glucagon and growth hormone?

Gujarat VMC Pharmacist (28.03.2021)

a) Somatostatin

b) Serotonin

c) Melatonin

d) thyroxin

The hypothalamus secretes somatostatin , an inhibitory hormone.
• Somatostatin, commonly known as growth inhibiting hormone, prevents the pituitary gland from secreting GH.
• It has been shown to suppress GI, endocrine, exocrine, pancreatic and pituitary secretions, as well as neurotransmission and memory formation in the CNS.

26 / 60

26. Human being have____ number of Parathyroid glands.

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) 6

b) 8

c) 4

d) 2

There are two pairs i.e 4 parathyroid glands found in human body, these are oval shaped glands located next to the two thyroid gland lobes in the neck, Each of these gland is usually about the size of a pea. The parathyroid glands produce a hormone that regulates the amount of calcium in the blood.

27 / 60

27. Bile is produced by_________

VSSC Pharmacist-A (07.11.2021)

a) Liver

b) Pancreas

c) Intestine

d) Gallbladder

Bile is a physiological aqueous solution product and secreted by the liver. It consists mainly of bile salts phospholipids, cholesterol, conjugate billirubin electrolytes and water bile travels through the liver in series of ducts. Eventually exiting through the common hepatic duct.

28 / 60

28. Which of the following enzymes is repressed by the insulin hormone?

UP NHM Pharmacist (28.12.2022)

a) Glycogen synthase

b) Glycogen veductase

c) Hexokinase

d) Pyruvate kinase

The Pyruvate kinase exerts glucokinaseindependent effects on insulin secretion pathways in Bcells. An exciting finding is that, by stealing the ADP required for oxphos, Pyruvate Kinase toggles mitochondria between ATP generation and PFP biosynthesis.

29 / 60

29. Plasma has water to the extent of__________

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) 60%

b) 70%

c) 80%

d) 90%

Solid part of blood is composed of red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs) and platelets. The fluid (or liquid) part of blood is known as plasma and is a straw cloloured , viscous fluid and containing 90 to 92% of water and 6 to 8% proteins.

30 / 60

30. Which among the following is a light receptor protein synthesized by vitamin A for night vision?

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual (04.08.2022)

a) Globul in

b) Chromoprotein

c) Lipoprotein

d) Rhodopsin

Vitamin A is a precursor of rhodopsin, the photo pigment found in rods within retina of our eye that helps us to see at night. Without vitamin A, "night blindness' occurs. vitamin A is a fat soluble vitamin and found in many supplements and foods. Rhodopsin also known as visual purple, is a protein encoded by the RHO gene and a G-protein-coupled receptor.

31 / 60

31. The condensation of chromation and shrinkage of the nucleus leading to cell death is termed as:

Gujarat VMC Pharmacist (28.03.2021)

a) Pyknosis

b) Karyolysis

c) Autophagy

d) Karyorrhexis

Pyknosis is the process of nuclear shrinkage. It is an irreversible condition of chromatin in the nucleus of a cell wall undergoing necrosis or apoptosis.
• By following the progression of necrotic pyknosis, we surprisingly observed a transient state of chromatin detachment from the nuclear envelop followed by the nuclear envelope completely collapsing into chromatin.

32 / 60

32. In NREM Sleep, Which part of brain is not involved?

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual (04.08.2022)

a) Basal forebrain

b) Dorsal raphe nucleus

c) Thalamus

d) Hypothalamus

IN NREM Sleep Dorsal raphe nucleus in not involved.
• NREM sleep involves a reduce heart rate, lower blood

• The dorsal raphe nucleus is located on the midline of the brainstem and in one of raphe nucleus. It has rostral and caudal subdivisions. The dorsal raphe in the largest serotonergic nucleus and provides a substantial proportion of the serotonin inneruation to the forebrain.

33 / 60

33. All the following causes hyperglycemia except_______

VSSC Pharmacist-A (07.11.2021)

a) Miglitol

b) Diazoxide

c) Streptozotocin

d) Glucagon

Miglitol is an oral alpha-gluconsidase inhibitor used to improve glycemic control by delaying the digestion of carbohydrate. Miglitol inhibits the breakdown complexes carbohydrate in to glucose. Miglitol is used to treat high blood sugar levels that are caused by type 2 diabetes.

34 / 60

34. Inulin clearance is a measure of_______________

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual (04.08.2022)

a) Tubular Secretion flow

b) Glomerular filtration rate

c) Renal plasma flow

d) Tubular reabsorption rate

Inulin clearance is measure of Glomerular filtration rate. Glomerular filtration is the process that takes place in the kidney. It is a process that involves the filtration of blood and the removal of waste takes place.
GFR=Pinulin/Uinulin(Vu)

Where,
Uinulin = Concentration of inulin in the urine.
Pinulm = Concentration of inulin in plasma.
Vu = Urine flow rate.

35 / 60

35. A large number of cells present in nervous system, is called _____ Or Which of the following is a part of the nervous system?

UP NHM Pharmacist (28.12.2022)
BSSC Pharmacist (2018

a) Neurons

b) Nerve impulses

c) Neuroglia

d) Dendrites

The nervous system is made up of neurons, specialized cells that can receive and transmit chemical or electrical signals and glia cells that provide support functions for the neurons by playing an information processing role that is complementary to neurons.

36 / 60

36. mRNA is synthesized in the nucleus as :

Gujarat VMC Pharmacist (28.03.2021)

a) hnRNA

b) scRNA

c) tmRNA

d) snRNA

hn RAN stands for heterogenous nuclear RNA. It refers to the large pre - mRNAs of various nucleotide sequences II and processed in the nucleus to become cytoplasmic mRNAs .
• The hn RNA that is associated with proteins from the heterogenous nuclear ribonucleoprotein ( hn RNP)

37 / 60

37. Lymphocytes accounts for what percent of leucocytes in normal adults?

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) 90

b) 15

c) 60

d) 30

Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that develop in the bone marrow. A normal range of lymphocytes percentage is 18-45% of total leucocytes in normal adults.

38 / 60

38. The incorrect statement about heart is__________

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) Heart is located in thoracic cavity

b) Heart has three layers

c) Heart has three valves

d) Heart had four chambers

Human heart is a fist-sized organ that contains form main sections (chambers) mode of muscle. There are four valve in the human heart : aortic valves, mitral valve, tricuspid valve, and pulmonary valve. Heart walls have three layers: Endocardium (inner layer), myocardium (muscular middle layer) and third Epicardium (protective outer layer), our heart is located in the thoracic cavity (a space in the chest that contains other organs as lungs esophagus, trachea and thymus).

39 / 60

39. Identify the method of metabolism of salicylates in our body.

Kerala PSC Pharmacist Gr.II (04.01.2021)

a) Conjugation with glucuronic acid

b) Hydroxylation

c) Oxidation

d) Reduction

metabolism of salicylates occurs through glucuronidation and by conjugation to salcyluric acid. Liver metabolizes salicylates by first order elimination, and the inactive metabolites are then excreted in the urine.

40 / 60

40. Which vein drain abdomen?

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) Superior vena cava

b) Inferior vena cava

c) Coronary sinus

d) None of these

The inferior vena cava (IVC) drains venous blood from the lower trunk, abdomen, pelvis and lower limbs to the right artrium of the heart .The inferior vena cava is formed by the confluence of two common iliac veins at L-5 vertebral level.

41 / 60

41. Creatinine clearance is used as a measurement of___________

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual (04.08.2022)

a) Passive renal absorption

b) Renal excretion rate

c) Glomerular Filtration Rate

d) Active renal secretion

Creatinine clearance is used as a measurement of Glomerular Filtration Rate(GFR). The creatinine clearance test helps provide information about how well the kidneys are working. The test compares the creatinine level in urine with the creatinine level in blood. This test requires both a urine sample and blood sample.

42 / 60

42. How many laminae are present in the grey matter of spinal cord?

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual (04.08.2022)

a) 9/9

b) 7/7

c) 10/10

d) 8/8

10 (1–x) laminae are present in the grey matter of spinal cord. Structure of brain & spinal cord are arranged in two layers namely grey matter & white matter. Grey matter is formed by neuron cell bodies (soma). Grey matter present in outer surface of cerebrum & cerebellum.
• In brain stem grey matter is located in groups of neurons called nuclei, embedded with white matter tracts. (Ex→ Basal ganglia)
• Grey matter is the outer parts of the brain & inner parts of the spinal cord but white matter is present in inner part of brain & outer part of spinal cord.

43 / 60

43. Which of the following releases renin?

GMC Pharmacist (08.08.2021)

a) Crypts of Lieberkuhn

b) Cells of Justa-medullary apparatus

c) Gastric glands of infants

d) Cells of Juxta-glomerular apparatus

The juxt-aglomerular cells are stimulated to secrete renin by three mechanism, all of which are activated in response to decreased extracellular fluid volume. Macula densa cells stimulate Juxtaglomerular cells to release renin when they detect a drop in sodium concentration in the tubular fluid.

loss of muscle tone occurs in stage - III. Muscle tone is the amount of tension (or resistance to movement) in muscles. Our muscle tone help us to hold our bodies upright when we are sitting and standing.

44 / 60

44. Loss of muscle tone occurs in _____ stage.

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) Stage IV

b) Stage II

c) Stage III

d) Stage I

45 / 60

45. Which of the following is a catecholamine___________

Gujarat VMC Pharmacist (28.03.2021)

a) Tyramine

b) Thyroxine

c) Melanine

d) Dopamine

Dopamine, adrenaline and noradrenalin are all catecholamine's.
• Catecholamine's are hormones that the brain, nerve tissue, and adrenal glands produce.
• The body releases catecholamine's in response to emotional or physical stress.
• Catecholamine's are responsible for the body's "fight or flight" response.

46 / 60

46. The spleen is located under the ribcage and above the stomach in the_____ of the abdomen.

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual (04.08.2022)

a) Left lower quadrant

b) Right lower quadrant

c) Left upper quadrant

d) Right upper quadrant

The spleen is part of our lymphatic system. The spleen is a fist-sized organ found in the upper left side of our abdomen, next to our stomach and behind our left ribs. We can survive without it but it is an important part of our immune system.

47 / 60

47. Active immunity may be gained by_______

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) All of these

b) Natural infection

c) Vaccines

d) Toxoids

Active immunity results when exposure to a disease organism triggers the immune system to produce antibodies to that disease. Active immunity may be acquired by natural infection, vaccination or by applying toxoids to the immune system.

48 / 60

48. Function of Golgi apparatus is_________

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) Breakdown of toxic substance

b) Synthesis of ribosomes

c) Transport of proteins

d) Synthesis of proteins

The cell organelle, which is known as golgi body or golgi- apparatus, helps in transporting, modifying and packaging proteins and lipids into vesicles for delivery to the targeted destinations Golgi body is membrane-bound organelle of eukaryotic cell,

49 / 60

49. The proximal convoluted tubules lies in_________

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) Renal cortex

b) Renal pelvis

c) Renal sinus

d) Renal medulla

The proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) is located in the renal cortex. PCT is a segment of the renal tubule responsible for the reabsorption and secretion of various solutes and water.

50 / 60

50. Which of the following type of food poisoning is caused by staphylococcus aureus?

UP NHM Pharmacist (28.12.2022)

a) Helicobacter associated

b) Peptic ulceration

c) Autoimmune chronic gastritis

d) Acute gastritis

Acute gastritis Type of food poisoning is caused by staphylococcus aureus. Staph food poisoning is a gastrointestinal illness caused by eating foods contaminated with toxins produced by the bacterium staphylococcus aureus staph bacteria.

51 / 60

51. Ventricles of brain are lined by___________

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual (04.08.2022)

a) Oligodendrocytes

b) Astrocytes

c) Podocytes

d) Ependymocytes

Ependymocytes are one of the three types of ependymal cells which in turn are one of the four principles types of glial cells, and are found lining ventricular system of the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord.

• Astrpcutes are specialized glial cells that outnumber neurons by over fivefold, they contiguously tile the entire CNS and exert many essential complex functions in the healthy CNS.
• Oligodenrocytes - These are the myelinating cells of CNS.
• Podocytes→ podocytes are terminally differentiated cells of the kidney glomerulus that are essential for the integrity of the kidney filter.

52 / 60

52. Sarcolemma refers to_______

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) Mitochondria of skeletal muscle

b) Membrane of skeletal muscle

c) Endoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle

d) Cytoplasm of skeletal muscle

The plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle fiber is called sarcolemma. It consists of a lipid bilayer and a thin outer coat of polysaccharide material (glycocalyx) that contacts the basement membrane.

53 / 60

53. Total number of phalanges in upper limb is________

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) 20

b) 14

c) 10

d) 28

The bones in the fingers and toes were first called phalanges by Greek philosopher Aristotle because they are arranged in ranks suggesting the military formation Each of human hand has 14 phalanges and therefore both hands of upper limb have a total of 28 phalanges.

54 / 60

54. Erythropoietin is produced by____________

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual (04.08.2022)

a) Lungs

b) Liver

c) Bone marrow

d) Kidney

Erythropoietin (EPO) is a glycoprotein hormone, naturally produced by the peritubular cells of the kidney, that stimulates red blood cells production. Renal cortex peritubular cells produce most EPO in the human body. PO2 directly regulates EPO production. The lower the PO2. the greater the production of EPO.

55 / 60

55. An example of flat bone___________

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a) Skull bone

b) Carpals

c) Sternum

d) Kneecap

The sternum is a partially T. Shaped vertical bone that forms the anterior portion of the chest wall centrally. The sternum of the sternum is divided anatomically into three segments.
The sternum connects the ribs via the costal cartilages forming the anterior rib cage.

56 / 60

56. Life span of W.B.C. in human is_______

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) 100 days

b) 50 days

c) 7 days

d) None of these

White blood cells (WBCs) protect the body from infections and foreign particles WBCs are irregular and colorless cells with a nucleus, their life span is very short and ranges from few hours to maximum 20 days only.

57 / 60

57. Endothelium dependent relaxing factor of blood.

VSSC Pharmacist-A (07.11.2021)

a) None of the above

b) Acetyl Choline

c) Nitric oxide

d) Nor adrenaline

Endothelium dependent relaxing factor of blood Nitric oxide. Endothelium dependent relaxation occurs in resistance vessels as well as in larger arteries and is generally more pronounced in arteries platetet aggregation and adhesion to the blood vessel wall.

58 / 60

58. Which of the following isotope is used to study the functioning of thyroid gland?

GMC Pharmacist (08.08.2021)

a) Iodine 133

b) Iodine 135

c) Iodine 127

d) Iodine 123

Iodine-123 (or I-123) is a radio-isotope of iodine used for evaluation of the thyroid function and morphology. It is used in nuclear medicine for the diagnostic study of thyroid disease.

59 / 60

59. Which of the following lack blood Supply?

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) None of these

b) Connective tissue

c) Bone

d) Cartilage

Cartilage is a strong flexible connective tissue that protects our joints and bones. It is a firm tissue but is soften and much more flexible than bone. Cartilage lacks blood supply as it has no blood vessels nerves, of lymphatics.

60 / 60

60. The powerhouse of the cell is :

Gujarat VMC Pharmacist (28.03.2021)

a) Mitochondria

b) Ribosomes

c) Golgi Bodies

d) Nucleus

Mitochondria is known as the "powerhouse of the cell"
• It is a double membrane bound organelle found in most eukaryotic organisms.
• They play a major role in breaking down nutrients and generating energy rich molecules for the cell. Many of the biochemical reactions involved in cellular respiration take place within the mitochondria.
• It was discovered by a German pathologist named Richard Altman in year 1890 .

Your score is

The average score is 30%

Pharmaceutics Quiz 1

Pharmaceutics Online Quiz For Pharmacist Exam Part 1

Get ready to test your knowledge in the field of Pharmaceutics. Please click on the right option to answer the questions. Good luck!

Please login to participate in this Quiz!

NameEmail

1 / 60

1. The part of prescription containing directions to the pharmacist for preparing the prescription and for dispensing them, is known as ___.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Refilling

b) Signa.

c) Subscription

d) Superscription

2 / 60

2. Weight variations in tablet processing is caused by all of the following except __________.

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Non uniform granule size distribution

b) Presence of excessive fines

c) Poor flow of granules

d) Higher speed of turret

3 / 60

3. What is the dose for a 50 lb child if the average adult dose is 20 mg?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) 6.6

b) 6.1

c) 6.2

d) 6.9

Dose calculation for a child if his weight in pounds (lb) is known, can be done by Clark's rule
Child's dose = Body weight (lb)/150 X adult dose
= 50/150 x 20
= 1000/150
= 6.6 mg

4 / 60

4. In 1885, which of the following pharmacopoeias was made official in India?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) United States pharmacopoeia

b) Indian pharmacopoeia

c) European pharmacopoeia

d) British pharmacopoeia

5 / 60

5. If the Carr's index of powder is 10% type of powder flow is ………?

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a) Average

b) Poor

c) Excellent

d) Good

The Carr's index is an indicator of the compressibility of a powder. It is named after the scientist Raph J. Carr, Jr. The Carr index is calculated by the formula

6 / 60

6. What does the Latin term 'Dolore Urgente' signify in a prescription?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) To be taken immediately

b) To be taken when the cough is severe

c) To be taken when the pain is severe

d) To be taken frequently

In a prescription the Latin term 'Dolore Urgents' signifies that it is to be taken when the pain is severe.

7 / 60

7. The standard for Insulin was introduced in the USP in the year:

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) 1949

b) 1941

c) 1937

d) 1938

8 / 60

8. Which of the following types of glass containers used for parenteral preparation is most resistant to chemical deterioration?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Type III

b) Type IV

c) Type I

d) Type II

The glass containers used for pharmaceutical packaging, are made of Type-I glass, which is known as borosilicate glass, This type of glass has a high melting point to withstand high temperatures, it also has high hydrolytic resistance and it is resistant to chemical substances. Borosilicate glass (Type-I) is used for laboratory glass apparatus, water for injection and for parenteral and non-parenteral use.

9 / 60

9. Which of the following is considered the heart of the patient counselling session?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Closing of the session

b) Opening of the session

c) Preparing for the session

d) Counselling content

The heart of the patient counseling session is the counseling content. During this step, it has been explained to the patient by a pharmacist about his or her medications and treatment regimens.

10 / 60

10. Which of the following test is not official in as per Indian Pharmacopoeia?

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Uniformity of container content

b) Content of active ingredient

c) Uniformity of weight

d) Friability

11 / 60

11. Which test microorganism is used for most heat sterilization technique?

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a) Bacillus popilliae

b) Bacillus thermophiles

c) Bacillus thuringiensis

d) Bacillus Subtillis

Sterilization :- It is the removal of all forms of microorganisms from the surface of an object. It includes both vegetative and spore forms
• Sterilization is classified into two types - physical and chemical sterilization -
• Physical sterilization includes heat sterilization it is done by two methods: Moist heat sterilization & Dry heat sterilization, Filtration, Irradiation (Non-ionizing radiation & Ionizing radiation), sound waves vibration, Fractional sterilization.
• Chemical sterilization are two types : gaseous and liquid.
• Moist Heat sterilization is one of the best methods of sterilization. It is done with the help of an instrument called an autoclave. An autoclave works on the principle of producing steam under pressure. Thus moist heat sterilization is also known as stem sterilization.
• Some micro-organisms resistant to moist heat sterilization
• Bacillus subtilis variety 5230.
• Bacillus stearothermophilus.
• Clostridium sporogenes.
Note:- The commission has accepted option (c) only correct answer to this question.

12 / 60

12. What is Humectant?

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a) Used to prevent drying of cream

b) Used to improve humidity

c) Reduce particle size

d) Reduce particle density

A humectant is a common moisturizing agent found in lotions, shampoos, and other beauty products used for our hair and skin. These are also used in many products including food, cosmetics, medicines and pesticides. It comes in three main forms: natural or unchanged, naturally derived, and synthetic.
• All humectants bind with water but some of them have an additional role. Some humectants first break down the dead skin cells clogging up our skin's surface.

13 / 60

13. “Post cibum” means_________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) After meal

b) At bedtime

c) As needed

d) In morning

14 / 60

14. Which type of drug information resources do indexing and abstracting services come under?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Secondary

b) Primary

c) Tertiary

d) Quaternary

Secondary sources of drug information refer to indexing and abstracting systems that organize and provide easy retrieval of primary resources drug information sources have been traditionally classified in three categories primary, secondary and tertiary. Primary sources of drug information include unpublished studies. Tertiary sources of drug information summarize data from the primary literature and they include reference books, drug compendia and essential drugs list etc.

15 / 60

15. Carbohydrate is given as a source of carbon in a culture medium. Which gas will evolve during the growth of bacteria in the medium?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) N2

b) CO2

c) SO2

d) H2

The primary source of carbon, used in typical cell culture media is carbohydrate (or glucose). In this process some of the carbon turns in CO2 during respiration while providing energy to the cell metabolism.

16 / 60

16. The number of newly added monographs in Indian pharmacopoeia 2022 is:

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) 74

b) 103

c) 63

d) 92

Indian pharmacopoeia 2022 {I,P - 2022} Contains a total of 92 new monographs, including 60 chemicals 21 vitamins, minerals, amino acids, etc, 3 biotechnology-derived therapeutic products, 4- human-derived therapeutic products, 4- human vaccines, 2 blood and blood-related products, 2 herbs and herbal related products, and seven phytopharmaceutical ingredients.

17 / 60

17. The Latin term for eardrops is __________.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Haustus

b) Collutorium

c) Collyrium

d) Auristillae

18 / 60

18. Which of the following is not a filter aid?

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a) Perlite

b) Cellulose

c) Cotton

d) Diatomaceous earth

19 / 60

19. Which is not an evaluation parameter test for the parenterals?

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Tonicity test

b) Pyrogen test

c) Sterility test

d) Leaker test

20 / 60

20. ________ is an important inventory control technique that is useful in determining how much to order.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) VED

b) EOQ

c) ABC

d) VEN

ABC is an important inventory control technique useful in determining how much to order. It classifies the inventory items based on the item's consumption values.

21 / 60

21. The standard test for catgut involving measurement by means of dial reading micrometer is known as the test for ________.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Contaminants

b) Tensile strength

c) Gauge

d) Sterility

22 / 60

22. The following are sterile dosage forms except;

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a) Ophthalmic

b) Parenteral

c) Elixirs

d) None of these

23 / 60

23. Gelatin is used as__________

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a) Encapsulating agent

b) Stabilizer

c) Sweetener

d) Antifungal agent

Gelatin is a protein made from animal collagen, usually from cows and pigs. It's commonly used to make capsules, cosmetics, ointments and foods. It is commonly utilized as a gelling agent.
• It was selected as encapsulating material because being commonly used as a food ingredient it possesses unique gelation properties and is commercially available at a low cost.

24 / 60

24. Which category of ABC analysis consists of approximately 70% of expenditure and 10% of drugs?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) D

b) B

c) A

d) C

In the ABC analysis, 'A' items are those goods or drugs having the highest annual consumption value approximately 70 to 80% but also they are relatively small (about 10 to 20%) in numbers.

25 / 60

25. Supplement to IP 1955 was published in the year________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) 1958

b) 1959

c) 1960

d) 1961

26 / 60

26. Following equipment is not used for mixing of solids

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Paddle mixer

b) Double cone blender

c) Tumbler mixer

d) Air mixer

27 / 60

27. _________ is an extra pharmacopeia.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) BP

b) Martindale

c) IP

d) BPC

Martindale is an extra pharmacopeia and it named so, as it was originally produced by the William Martindale in 1883 and now published by the pharmaceutical society of Great Britain. It contains information on the drugs presently used in Great Britain.

28 / 60

28. In ABC analyses, the A items are:

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) l0%-20% of items and 70%-80% of the expenditures.

b) 10%-20% of items and 90o/o-95% of the expenditures

c) l%-2% of items and 90%-95% of the expenditures

d) 1%-2% of items and 70%-80% of the expenclitures

In ABC analysis, the A items are 10% - 20% of items and 70% - 80% of their expenditure. This means that a items comprise a relatively small number of items but have a relatively high consumption.

29 / 60

29. The meaning and full form of 'ad. Lib' are _________ and _________, respectively.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) The half; Ad. libitum

b) As often as necessary; Ad. libitum

c) As much as you please; Ad. libitum

d) The remainder; Ad. libitum

The pharase Ad. Lib is a shortened form of the Latin Ad. libitum, which means at one's pleasure or as much as one likes.

30 / 60

30. Empty capsule has a moisture content in the range of________

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a) 14%-15%

b) 30%-45%

c) 40%-50%

d) 50%-70%

31 / 60

31. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the coding system for materials?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) It facilitates quick identification.

b) It helps identify spurious drugs.

c) It eliminates the chances of duplication of items.

d) It assists in keeping records.

Codification is the process of assigning a number or symbol to each store item, along with a name, in order to make it easy and convenient to identify. It cannot yet eliminate the chances of duplication of items because a duplicate item can easily be placed with a same code given to original item.

32 / 60

32. Which of the following is an absorbed type of suture material?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Horse hair

b) Brocafil

c) Linen

d) Silk

33 / 60

33. Observe prescription below and identify type of incompatibility: Rx Tetracycline chloride-250 mg Send 7 capsules

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Therapeutic Incompatibility

b) All of these

c) Chemical Incompatibility

d) Physical Incompatibility

34 / 60

34. In the working of cyclone separator, the suspension of solid in gas is introduced through

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Central opening at top of cylinder

b) Tangential opening at the cylinder

c) Conical end opening at the base

d) All of these

35 / 60

35. Methyl paraben or propyl paraben may be used in the preparation of ointment as:

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) An emulsifier

b) A chelating agent

c) A humectant

d) A preservative

In the preparation of an ointment and in other pharmaceutical applications and in cosmetic industries, parabens (methyl paraben, propyl paraben) are widely used as preservatives. These compounds and their salts are used mainly for their antifungal and antibacterial properties.

36 / 60

36. Clark's formula of dose calculation is based on________.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Body surface area

b) Body weight

c) Age

d) Body mass index

37 / 60

37. Fluid preparation applied to skin without friction are________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Liniment

b) Lotion

c) Creams

d) Jellies

38 / 60

38. Signatura part of prescription contain__________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Direction for patient

b) Renewal instruction

c) Patient information

d) Direction to dispenser

39 / 60

39. What is the source of the Cargile membrane suture?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Silkworm

b) Horse

c) Sheep

d) Ox

A Cargile membrane suture was prominently used in the beginning 20th century in abdominal surgery. It is made from the peritoneum of the Ox.

40 / 60

40. As per GMP permitted limit of soluble content in water for injection is____________

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a) 0.01 ppm

b) 1 ppm

c) 10 ppm

d) 0.1 ppm

As per GMP permitted limit of soluble content in water for injection is 10 ppm.
• Water is the most common aqueous vehicle used in pharmaceuticals. Several types of water are used in the preparation of drug product such as Nonpotable water, portable water, purified water for injection, sterile water for injection, Bacterio static WFI, sterile water for inhalation , etc.
• Water for Injection is a solvent used in the production of prarenteral and other preparations where products endotoxin content must be controlled, and in other pharmaceutical applications WFI is sterile, non pyrogenic, distailled water for the preparation of products for parenteral use. The WFI monograph also allows it to be packed in bulk for commercial use.

41 / 60

41. If bacteria are present in a hypotonic medium, what will happen to the bacterial cells?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Shrinkage and bursting

b) Shrinkage and collapsing

c) Swelling and bursting

d) Swelling and collapsing

When a bacteria get into a hypotonic medium, the bacterial cell starts swelling and expand until it burst finally and this kind of cell bursting is known as cytolysis.

42 / 60

42. Which of the following mediums is used for detection of both aerobes and anaerobes?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Liver broth

b) Cooked meat medium

c) Peptone broth

d) Fluid thioglycollalte medium

Fluid thioglycollate medium is the best way to determine whether bacteria are aerobic or anaerobic, i.e. when are grow these bacteria in a test tube filled with thioglycollate nutrient broth, it will be observed that anaerobic bacteria will grow at the bottom of the test tube i.e. away from oxygen, on the other hand aerobic bacteria will grow at the top of the test tube, nearest to the oxygen.

43 / 60

43. Rapid development of tolerance of repeated doses of a drug in quick succession, with reduction in clinical response, is termed as____.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Idiosyncrasy

b) Antagonism

c) Tachyphylaxis

d) Synergism

44 / 60

44. The part of the prescription called inscription contains_______

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a) Signature and address

b) Registration number and patient information

c) Name and age

d) Name and quantity of ingredients

45 / 60

45. The evaporating pan is heated with_______

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Steam

b) Chemical combustion

c) Liquefied petroleum gas

d) Electric heaters

46 / 60

46. A transparent or translucent semisolid preparation for external use is _______

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Jellies

b) Cream

c) Lotion

d) Paste

47 / 60

47. Meta filter has following advantages except_________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Corrosive liquids can be filtered.

b) Cake can be easily removed.

c) It has considerable strength and with stan high pressure.

d) It provides large surface area for filtration.

48 / 60

48. A prescription contains 'Oculent. Ciprofloxacin 0.3% b.i.d.' As a pharmacist, how you will give instructions to the patient regarding its use?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Twice a day, apply on wound

b) Before dinner, apply on the eyes

c) Before dinner, apply on wound

d) Twice a day, apply on the eyes

The abbreviation for b.i.d is bis in die which in Latin means twice a day, and oculent is the term for eye medicine. Therefore, Oculent. Ciprofloxacin 0.3% b.i.d represents the pharmacist's instruction as twice a day on the eyes.

49 / 60

49. The first British Pharmacopoeia was published in ___________ .

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) 1932

b) 1885

c) 1968

d) 1864

50 / 60

50. The___ contains specific directions for th pharmacist on how to compound the medication.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Signature

b) Superscription

c) Inscription

d) Subscription

The subscription contains specific directions for the pharmacist on how to compound the medication. It contains instructions for the pharmacist on how to produce a dose, this means that it is a section of prescription that specifies the number of dosage units and amount to be administered.

51 / 60

51. In a prescription, Rx is an abbreviation of the Latin word 'Recipe', meaning __.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) To provide

b) To take

c) To observe

d) To receive

52 / 60

52. The time interval between placing the order for purchase and receipt of items is called_______.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Waiting time

b) Reorder time

c) Buffer time

d) Lead time

The time interval between placing the order for purchase and receipt of items is called lead time. It represents how long it takes for an order to be fulfilled from the time the order is placed until the estimated data of receipt.

53 / 60

53. In cyclonic separator the mixture is passed through_________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Tangential inlet in the cylinder

b) Bottom inlet at the conical base of cylinder

c) Central inlet at the top of cylinder

d) All of these

54 / 60

54. Which is not true for dry gum method?

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) All apparatus should be dry

b) Primary emulsion is viscous and creamy

c) It is a quick process

d) Dry acacia is used

55 / 60

55. Dose calculation based on body surface area is depicted by ____ formula.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Augsberger's

b) Crawford Terry Rourke's

c) Bruntion's

d) Fried's

56 / 60

56. In dry powder inhalers, material like____ is made to modify adhesive properties between drug and carrier particles.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Leucine

b) Proline

c) Serine

d) Glycine

In dry powder inhalers, material like Leucine is made to modify adhesive properties between drug and carrier particles. Leucine actually has multiple purposes as it inhances the dispensability and aerosolization of particles, and hence increase their emitted dose and fine particle fraction (FPF).

57 / 60

57. The supplement for India Pharmacopoeia in 2000 was introduced to include which of the following?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Vaccines

b) Liposomal products

c) Veterinary Products

d) Herbal drugs

58 / 60

58. In which drug distribution system are medications ordered, packed, handled, administered and charged in multiples of single-dose units containing a predetermined amount of drug?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Centralised distribution system

b) Complete floor stock system

c) Individual prescription system

d) Unit dose dispensing method

Unit dose dispensing method is the drug distributing system, where medications ordered, packed, handled, administered and charged in multiples of singledose units containing a pre-determined amount of drugs.

59 / 60

59. Which is not correct for deflocculate suspension?

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Sediment is difficult to redisperse

b) Particle present as separate unit

c) Particles settle fast

d) Chances of cake formation are more

60 / 60

60. Fluid thioglycolate media is used for the detection of:

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Aerobes and anaerobes

b) Aerobes

c) Anaerobes

d) Aerobic bacteria and lower fungi

Fluid thioglycolate media is used for the detection of both aerobes and anaerobes. In the fluid thioglycolate solution it has been found that aerobes grow at upper surface as they requires oxygen and on the other hand anaerobes grow at the bottom of the solution because they can grow without oxygen.

Your score is

The average score is 33%

Pharmaceutical Chemistry Quiz 1

Pharmaceutical Chemistry Quiz Based of Previous Year Pharmacist Exam Paper Part 1

Get ready to test your knowledge in the field of Pharmaceutical Chemistry. Please click on the right option to answer the questions. Good luck!

Please login to participate in this Quiz!

NameEmail

1 / 60

1. What is the common name of Calcium hypochlorite?

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. Washing soda

b. Bleaching powder

c. Baking powder

d. Baking soda

2 / 60

2. Sodium nitrite _____ type of antidote.

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Physical

b. Physiological

c. Pharmacological

d. Chemical

3 / 60

3. The lightest radioactive element is_________

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. Deuterium

b. Polonium

c. Uranium

d. Tritium

4 / 60

4. The factors affecting rate of settling of particles of a suspension are based on:

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Henry's law

b. Raoult's law

c. Stoke's law

d. Poiseuille's Law

5 / 60

5. The drug delivery deep into skin by means of galvanic current is called________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Intrathecal

b. Iontophoresis

c. Inunction

d. Depilation

6 / 60

6. Calamine is__________

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Zinc carbonate

b. Zinc acetate

c. Zinc oxide

d. Zinc Sulphate

7 / 60

7. Rad is the _____.

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Unit of ionizing radiation

b. Unit of exposure

c. Unit of absorbed dose

d. Unit of radioactivity

8 / 60

8. Which compound of sulphur is used in shampoos for anti-dandruff qualities. Or _________ is used for treating dandruff.

Safdarjung Pharmacist Mains (21.11.2023), ESIC Gujarat Jr. Pharmacist (31.08.2014)

a. Titanium dioxide

b. Yellow mercuric oxide

c. Selenium sulphide

d. Sulphur

9 / 60

9. Itai-itai disease is associated with____poisoning.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Lead

b. Cadmium

c. Iron

d. Mercury

10 / 60

10. Which of the following reagent is used in the Osazone test?

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a. Phenylephrine

b. Phenylhydrazine

c. Phenylbutazone

d. Pyridine

11 / 60

11. Which of the Following used to relieve dental hypersensitivity? Or Which of the following is a desensitizing agent used as a dental product?

TNPSC Drugs Inspector (27.06.2019), AMC Pharmacist (05.11.2023)

a. Calcium phosphate

b. Stannous fluoride

c. Strontium chloride

d. Sodium fluoride

12 / 60

12. At acidic pH, the amino acid is________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. In salt form

b. In anionic form

c. In cationic form

d. In zwitter ion form

13 / 60

13. Belching may be caused by antacid preparations containing_______

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Calcium carbonate

b. Sodium bicarbonate

c. Magnesium carbonate

d. Aluminium hydroxide

14 / 60

14. Zinc chloride is used as ______.

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023), RUSH Pharmacist (16.06.2012)

a. Preservative

b. Stabilizer

c. Astringent

d. Emulsifying agent

15 / 60

15. Kallikrein is activated by_______

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Renin

b. Hageman factor

c. Phospholipase

d. Kininase

16 / 60

16. To check presence of Barium in sample, little quantity of substance is dissolved in 5 ml HCl, followed by addition of 2 ml H2SO4, which produces:

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Red colour solution

b. Pungent Gas

c. White precipitate

d. Brown fumes

17 / 60

17. Which is used as a deodorant?

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Petrolatum

b. Aluminium Chloral Hydrate

c. Buffered Aluminium Sulphate

d. Hexamethylene Tetramine

18 / 60

18. Body of nitrous oxide cylinder is painted________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Blue

b. White

c. Black

d. Grey

19 / 60

19. For elapids venom, the drug effectively used in hospital management is ____.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Methyl dopa

b. Neostigamine

c. Domperidone

d. Caffeine

20 / 60

20. Antimony potassium tartarate is _____ in taste.

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Astringent

b. Bitter

c. Sweet

d. Acrid

21 / 60

21. _______ gas is most widely used in "fire extinguishers"

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual(04.08.2022)

a. Nitric Oxide

b. Carbon dioxide

c. Argon

d. Oxygen

22 / 60

22. Compound Sodium Lactate injection is used as Fluid electrolyte replenisher and _____.

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Nutrient

b. Diuretic

c. Systemic alkalizer

d. Irrigation

23 / 60

23. Direction to the dispenser are contained in______

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. Superscription

b. Signatura

c. Subscription

d. Inscription

24 / 60

24. An example of quenching vapour used in the Geiger Muller counter is_________

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. N

b. He

c. Ar

d. Cl

25 / 60

25. Antimony Potassium tartarate is used as_______

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Styptic

b. Antimicrobial

c. Expectorant

d. Emetic

26 / 60

26. Which of the following is a physical sunscreen? Or Which of the following is used in sunburn ?

AMC Pharmacist (05.11.2023), VSSC Pharmacist-A (07.11.2021)

a. Para aminobenzoic acid

b. Silicone oil

c. Methyl salicylate

d. TiO2

Titanium dioxide as a sunscreen agent functions in similar to zinc oxide. The particles of Titanium dioxide are not absorbed into your skin, so they stay on the surface. The bright surface of the mineral reflects UV rays away from the body. Since the rays never reach your skin you or protected.

27 / 60

27. Which of the following is a vesicular drug delivery system?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Collodion

b. Iontophoresis

c. Liposomes

d. Implant

28 / 60

28. The citric acid is used in iron limit test :

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a. To prevent the colour due to copper

b. To prevent the colour due to chloride

c. To prevent the colour due to lead

d. To prevent the colour due to sulphate

29 / 60

29. Which of the following is used as Vulcanizing agent in the manufacture of rubber closure?

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a. Stearic acid

b. All of these

c. Sulphur

d. Activated carbon black

30 / 60

30. Formula of Rochelle's salt is________

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. C4H4O6KNa.4H2O

b. C2H4O6KNa.4H2O

c. C4H2O6KNa.4H2O

d. C2H2O6KNa.4H2O

31 / 60

31. The first stage of characteristic triple response upon injection of histamine is named?

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Dolor

b. Wheal

c. Flare

d. Flush

32 / 60

32. Mechanism of action of Isonicotinic acid hydrazide is_________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Interfere with utilization of p-amino benzoic acid

b. Inhibit bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase

c. Combine with bacterial ribosome and interfere with mRNA

d. Inhibit phospholipid synthesis and damage bacterial cell wall

33 / 60

33. Which is used for local styptic ?

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a. Potassium bitartrate

b. Sodium sulphate

c. Alum

d. Zinc oxide

34 / 60

34. The burns involving the outermost layer of skin are called ___ degree burns.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Second

b. First

c. Third

d. Fourth

35 / 60

35. Compound Benzoin tincture formula does not contain following ingredient:

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Aloe

b. Tolu Balsam

c. Storax

d. Glycerin

36 / 60

36. Aqueous iodine solution is called_______

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023), UP NHM Pharmacist (28.12.2022)

a. Fischer Solution

b. Marthins solution

c. Bendits solution

d. Lugol's solution

37 / 60

37. The average salinity of seawater is__________

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. 2.5%

b. 2%

c. 3.5%

d. 3%

38 / 60

38. Ecchymosis of the skin is associated with____.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Dog bite

b. Snake bite

c. Leech bite

d. Rat bite

'Ecchymosis' is the medical term for bruises, and these form when blood pools under the skin powerful Jaws of some dogs have enough force that can give bruising to the skin through its teeth and leave some redness upon it. Therefore ecchymosis is associated with dog-bite.

39 / 60

39. Which of the following is used as an antidote for Organophosphorus and carbamate pesticides poisoning?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Hemicholinium

b. Neostigmine

c. Atropine sulfate

d. Vesamicol

40 / 60

40. Cidex is known as ……..

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. 0.1% solution of glutaraldehyde

b. 1% solution of glutaraldehyde

c. 2% solution of glutaraldehyde

d. 0.2% solution of glutaraldehyde

Glutaraldehyde is an organic compound with the formula (CH2)3 (CHO)2.
• Glutaraldehyde, sold under the brand name Cidex and Glutaral, is a disinfectant, medication, preservative and fixative.

41 / 60

41. An extraction process in which water is poured over drugs, allowing close contact for stated period and finally liquid is filtered off is called:

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Digestion

b. Percolation

c. Infusion

d. Maceration

42 / 60

42. Which of the following excipient is included in metered dose inhalers to increase the vapor pressure of the propellant?

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual(04.08.2022)

a. Tween

b. Oleic acid

c. Antioxidants

d. Ethanol

43 / 60

43. _____ ions are responsible for release of AcH from neurons.

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Calcium

b. Potassium

c. Magnesium

d. Sodium

44 / 60

44. Ammonium carbonate acts as respiratory stimulant by_________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Through CNS.

b. Binding to receptors on intercoastal muscles.

c. Irritating lungs.

d. Binding to receptors on lungs.

45 / 60

45. Chemical formula of Sodium Metabisulphite is_________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. NaS2O4

b. NaS2O5

c. NaS2O

d. NaSO

46 / 60

46. In which one of following oxygen is not used?

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Carbon monoxide poisoning

b. In soft drinks

c. Severe pulmonary damage

d. In Rocket fuels

47 / 60

47. Which antidote is used in copper poisoning?

GPSSB Jr. Pharmacist (08.05.2022)

a. D-Peniciliamine

b. Magnesium sulphate

c. Sodium Phosphate

d. Kaolin

48 / 60

48. Which of the following is a water immiscible liquid, encapsulated into soft gelatine capsules?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Ethoxylated sorbitan

b. Poly ether

c. Chlorinated hydrocarbon

d. Secondary alcohol

49 / 60

49. Chemical formula of bleaching powder.

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a. CaCO3

b. CaOCl2

c. CaCO3

d. CaO

50 / 60

50. Calamine is _________

HPSSC Pharmacist (19.08.2018), ESIC Delhi Pharmacist (19.03.2016), Lucknow Cantoment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Basic zinc carbonate

b. Basic zinc oxide

c. Basic zinc sulfate

d. Basic zinc hydroxide

Zinc oxide is amphoteric nature not only basic. Zinc oxide is an inorganic compound which is also known as calamine or zinc white.
→ Zinc carbonate is basic and it is a white crystalline powder that occurs naturally as granular or earhty masses. It is referred to as smithsonite or calamine or zinc spar.
NOTE– The commission has considered option (a) as answer.

51 / 60

51. A suspensoid in suspension formulation is:

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. An active drug

b. A solubilising vehicle

c. A preservative

d. A wetting agent

52 / 60

52. Electrolytes concentration are expressed in_____.

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. MEq/L

b. Mmol/L

c. Mol/L

d. Mg/L%

53 / 60

53. Which is not correct with respect to Griseofulvin ?

a. It is not effective against candida

b. It interferes with nucleic acid synthesis

c. It is not effective against candida and largely excreted in urine

d. It is largely excreted in urine

e. It acts as purine analogue

54 / 60

54. The specific antidote used for atropine poisoning is ____.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Mercaptide

b. Physostigmine

c. Protamine

d. Bemegride

55 / 60

55. A medicinal agent which promotes the secretion of bile is _____.

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Emmenagogue

b. Cholagogue

c. Sialogogue

d. Hydrogogue

56 / 60

56. Burns caused by which of the following substances can be called both thermal and chemical burns?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Copper sulphate

b. Sodium hydroxide

c. Phosphorous

d. Hydrochloric acid

57 / 60

57. Chemical intoxications occurring over 24 hours or less than that result in____ toxicity.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Sub chronic

b. Sub acute

c. Chronic

d. Acute

58 / 60

58. Simeco is combination antacid containing Or Which of the following is usually given in combination with Aluminium hydroxide as an antacid?

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022), AMC Pharmacist (05.11.2023)

a. Calcium carbonate with aluminium hydroxide gel, magnesium hydroxide and dimethicone

b. Aluminium hydroxide magnesium carbonate co-dried gel, magnesium hydroxide and dimethicone

c. Combination of aluminum hydroxide and magnesium carbonate

d. Co-precipitate of aluminium hydroxide and magnesium carbonate

59 / 60

59. Antacids containing ______ inhibit absorption of tetracycline from Intestine.

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. Magaldrate

b. Magnesium carbonate

c. Sodium bicarbonate

d. Calcium carbonate

60 / 60

60. Hydrogen peroxide is used as________

GSSSB Jr. Pharmacist (18.02.2018), AMC Pharmacist (05.11.2023)

a. Haematinics

b. Protective

c. Antiseptic

d. Acidifying agent

Your score is

The average score is 36%

Pharmacology and Toxicology Quiz 1

Pharmacology and Toxicology Quiz Based of Previous Year Pharmacist Exam Paper Part 1

Get ready to test your knowledge in the field of Pharmacology and Toxicology. Please click on the right option to answer the questions. Good luck!

Please login to participate in this Quiz!

NameEmail

1 / 60

1. _____ is an example of high sedative.

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Chlorpheniramine

b. Cyproheptadine

c. Pheniramine

d. Diphenhydramine

2 / 60

2. Scientific research is the primary source of:

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Textbooks

b. Database

c. Review articles

d. Drug information

3 / 60

3. A neonate suffering from icterus is intravenously administered with phenobarbital. The justification for this therapy is:

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. Phenobarbital suppresses hepatic glucuronyl transferase and increases clearance of bilirubin

b. Phenobarbital suppresses the bilirubin synthesis in neonatesj

c. Phenobarbital is a short acting barbiturate and hence safe to induce sleep in neonates

d. Phenoarbital induces hepatic glucuronyl transferase and increases clearance of bilirubin

4 / 60

4. Which of the following statements related to the location of drug information services/centre is INCORRECT?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. It should be near the operation theatre.

b. It should be near the pharmacy department.

c. It should be near the hospital library.

d. It should be away from inpatient and outpatient departments.

5 / 60

5. Match List I with List II, Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. 1:P, 2:Q, 3: T, 4: S, 5: R

b. 1:T, 2:Q, 3: R, 4:P, 5:S

c. 1:Q, 2:S, 3:P, 4:R, 5: T

d. 1:R, 2:Q, 3: S, 4: T, 5: P

6 / 60

6. Regarding Bromocriptine, which of the following statement is TRUE It is a relatively selective dopamine D2 agonist with prominent action
A. on pituitary lactotrophs (inhibit prolactin release)
B. in striatum (antiparkinsonian)
C. in CTZ (antiemetic)
D. as an adjunctive treatment for type 2 DM
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. B and D only

b. A, B and D only

c. A and B only

d. A, B and C only

7 / 60

7. Pyrazinamide is______

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Pyrazine-3-carboxamide

b. Pyrazine-2-carboxamide

c. Pyrazine-1-carboxamide

d. Pyrazine-4-carboxamide

8 / 60

8. Which of the following is not a screening method for antidiabetic agents?

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Euglcaemic clamp technique

b. Bio-breeding rat

c. Tooth pulp stimulation

d. Adrenaline-induced acute hyperglcaemia

9 / 60

9. Which of the following is not an endogenous compound?

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Noradrenaline

b. Desipramine

c. Endorphins

d. Dopamine

10 / 60

10. An example of adsorbent is________

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Cellulose

b. Magnesium stearate

c. Magnesium silicate

d. Acacia

11 / 60

11. The quadruple therapy of Helicobacter pylori infection includes:

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. Streptomycin, metronidazole, tetracycline and a proton pump inhibitor

b. Bismuth subsalicylate, metronidazole, azithromycin and a proton pump inhibitor

c. Bismuth subsalicylate, metronidazole, tetracycline and a proton pump inhibitor

d. Sulfasalazine, metronidazole, tetracycline and a proton pump inhibitor

12 / 60

12. The following drug is acting by inhibition HMG-Co-A enzyme:

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a. Rosuvastatin

b. Fenofibrate

c. Streptokinas

d. Penicillin

13 / 60

13. Ivermectin exerts its anthelmintic action through:

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Leakage of intracellular Ca +2

b. Activation of glutamate gated ci- channel

c. Activation of nicotinic cholinergic receptors

d. Activation of glycine gated c1- channel

14 / 60

14. A suppository is generally intended for use in________

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a. Rectum

b. All of these

c. Vagina

d. Urethra

15 / 60

15. Which of the following is the WHO Collaborating Centre for Pharmacovigilance in Public Health Programmes and Regulatory Services?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Uppsala Monitoring Centre

b. Norwegian Institute of Public Health

c. The Netherlands Pharmacovigilance Centre Lareb

d. Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission

16 / 60

16. How does phenylephrine differs from adrenaline?

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a. Lacking 4-COOH group on the benzene ring.

b. Lacking 4-NH group on the benzene ring.

c. Lacking 4-CONH2 group on the benzene ring

d. Lacking 4-OH group on the benzene ring.

17 / 60

17. ____________ is the study of how the body interacts with administered substances for the entire duration of exposure.

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Pharmacokinetics

b. Bioactivation

c. Biotransformation

d. Pharmacodynamics

18 / 60

18. An example of pyrazolone derivative analgesic is______

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Phenacetin

b. Mefanamic acid

c. Indomethacine

d. Phenylbutazone

19 / 60

19. General anaesthetics are_____ of the central nervous system.

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Depressants

b. Stimulators

c. Stabilisers

d. Activators

20 / 60

20. Bleeding due to displacement of warfarin from protein-binding sites is a type of ________ drug interaction.

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. oral antidiabetic

b. antihypertensive

c. analgesic

d. anticoagulant

21 / 60

21. Penicillin produces _____ upon hydrolysis with hot dilute inorganic acids.

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Penicillamine

b. Benzyl penicillin

c. Pencilloic acid

d. Propicillin

22 / 60

22. Tendon rupture or tendonitis of Achilles tendon is an adverse reaction of:

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. Fluoroquinolones

b. Cephalosporins

c. Aminoglycosides

d. Tetracyclines

23 / 60

23. __________ are drugs which treat rhinitis and other allergic conditions.

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Amphetamine

b. Antimicrobial agents

c. Antihistamines

d. Penicillamine

24 / 60

24. Pilocarpine is______

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Selective muscarinic receptor agonist

b. Non selective muscarinic receptor agonist

c. Selective muscarinic receptor antagonist

d. Non selective muscarinic receptor antagonist

25 / 60

25. Which of the following statement/s are correct regarding the alkylating agents as anticancer agents:
A. They get converted into highly nucleophilic anions and bind to the nitrogen atom of guanine intercalating the DNA strands
B. Cyclophosphamide and busulfan belong to this class
C. They inhibit the DNA synthesis by inhibiting the DNA polymerase enzyme
D. They inhibit the DNA supercoiling by irreversibly inhibiting the DNA topoisomerase enzyme

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. A, B and D only are correct

b. Only A and B are correct

c. All A, B, C and D are correct

d. Only B is correct

26 / 60

26. Which of the following drug is used in Herpes infection?

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a. Zidovudine

b. Idoxuridine

c. Efavirenz

d. Amantadine

27 / 60

27. Which enzyme catalyses the bioactivation of nitroglycerin into NO?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Glycerol kinase

b. Aldehyde dehydrogenase 2

c. Glycerol dehydrogenase

d. Tyrosine kinase

28 / 60

28. Which of the following drugs acts as ulcer protective agent?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Sodium citrate

b. Ambroxol

c. Cimetidine

d. Sucralfate

29 / 60

29. Which of the following is a correct match of drug and its mechanism of action in the management of congestive heart failure?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Dobutamine - Reduced heart rate

b. Torasemide - Afterload reduction

c. Levosimendan - Positive inotropic effect

d. Hydralazine - Preload reduction

30 / 60

30. Chlorpromazine exerts antipsychotic action by_____

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Depleting stores of catecholamines

b. Depleting stores of 5-Hydroxy tryptamine in brain

c. Blocking postsynaptic dopamine receptors

d. Inhibition of hypothalamic stimulation responses

31 / 60

31. The TDM refers to:

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Therapeutic Dose Monitoring

b. Treatment Drug Monitoring

c. Therapeutic Dose Management

d. Therapeutic Drug Monitoring

32 / 60

32. Choose the correct example of proton pump inhibitor.

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a. Albendazole

b. Pantoprazole

c. Alprazolam

d. Itraconazole

33 / 60

33. Adverse side effects of Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors like insomnia, increased anxiety, irritability and decrease libido are due to:

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Excessive stimulation of brain 5HT3 receptors

b. Excessive stimulation of brain 5HT2 receptors

c. Excessive stimulation of brain 5HT4 receptors

d. (a) Excessive stimulation of brain 5HT1B receptors

34 / 60

34. A patient with pheochromcytoma is undergoing surgery and has not been administered with alpha receptor blocker. If he is administered with intravenous propranolol, then which of the following effects will be evident?

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. There will be a fall in the blood pressure

b. There will be a rise in the blood pressure

c. The patient may suffer severe bronchoconstriction

d. The blood pressure will remain unchanged

35 / 60

35. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding Gemfibrozil?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. With statins, it increases the chances of myopathy.

b. It decreases the synthesis of lipoprotein lipase.

c. It markedly reduces circulating VLDL and triglyceride.

d. It is an agonist at PPAR-α nuclear receptors.

36 / 60

36. Sympathetic blocking drug “guanethidine” acts by

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. By blocking adrenergic receptors

b. Interfering with transmission of impulse across postganglionic adrenergic neuron

c. By interfering with synthesis of adrenergic transmitter

d. Depleting catecholamines

37 / 60

37. The following drug is dopaminergic agonist:

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a. Bromocriptine

b. Selegiline

c. Carbidopa

d. Entacapone

38 / 60

38. Which of the following effect is produced by Saroglitazar?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Decrease the glucose as well as lipid in plasma

b. Increasing the HDL is plasma

c. Lowering the LDL in plasma

d. Lowering the LDL-CH in plasma

39 / 60

39. Which of the following dye is used for the leakage test?

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Methylene blue

b. Methyl violet

c. Methylene rose

d. Methyl orange

40 / 60

40. In ADR, unusual and unexpected drug effects are known as:

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Excessive pharmacological effects

b. Secondary pharmacological effects

c. Idiosyncrasy

d. Allergic drug reactions

41 / 60

41. How many pharmacists are required for a 100-bed hospital?

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. 05

b. 02

c. 06

d. 10

Bed strength
No of pharmacists Required
UP to 50 beds
3
UP to 100 beds 5
UP to 200 beds 8
UP to 300 beds 10
UP to 500 beds 15

42 / 60

42. Match List I with List II Match the following with their mechanism of action:

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. A ‐IV, B ‐ I, C ‐V , D ‐III

b. A ‐IV , B ‐III , C ‐II , D ‐I

c. A ‐II , B ‐V , C ‐III , D ‐IV

d. A ‐ II, B ‐ III, C ‐IV , D ‐I

43 / 60

43. Phenformin was withdrawn worldwide owing to high risk of:

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Lactic alkalosis

b. Lactic acidosis

c. Keto alkalosis

d. Keto acidosis

44 / 60

44. __________ are the agents that help in lowering increased lipid levels.

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Antidotes

b. Hypolipidemic drugs

c. Haematinics

d. Antihypertensive drugs

45 / 60

45. Which of the following antidiabetic drug is Sulfonyl urea derivative?

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a. Pioglitazone

b. Linagliptin

c. Glibenclamide

d. Metformin

46 / 60

46. Which of the following is not a muscarinic action of Acetylcholine?

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Decrease in heart rate

b. Vasodilation

c. Increase in tone and activity of smooth muscle

d. Inhibition of gastric secretions

47 / 60

47. Reduced bronchodilation by a beta2 agonist prescribed with a non-selective beta-blocker is an example of:

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Pharmacodynamic drug-drug interaction

b. Behavioural drug-drug interaction

c. Pharmacokinetic drug-drug interaction

d. Pharmaceutical drug-drug interaction

48 / 60

48. Nitric oxide synthase exists in __________

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. Four isoforms

b. Five isoforms

c. Two isoforms

d. Three isoforms

49 / 60

49. The ‘Up‐and‐Down’ method for a projected LD50 determination is described in the…..

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. OECD Guideline 401

b. OECD Guideline 423

c. OECD Guideline 420

d. OECD Guideline 425

50 / 60

50. Dapagliflozin causes hypoglycaemia by:

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Increasing glucose excretion in urine

b. sensitizing insulin receptors

c. Increased glucose uptake in cell

d. Inhibiting gluconeogenesis in liver an kidney

51 / 60

51. Which drug is an HIV protease inhibitor?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Delavirdine

b. Nevirapine

c. Acyclovir

d. Lopinavir

52 / 60

52. Which of the following is a sod-glucose cotransport-2 (SGLT-2) inhibitor?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Sitagliptin

b. Dapagliflozin

c. Voglibose

d. Pioglitazone

53 / 60

53. Which antihypertensive drug is a direct renin inhibitor?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Moxonidine

b. Aliskiren

c. Moexipril

d. Phenoxybenzamine

54 / 60

54. Which of the following antihistaminic drug is a propylamine derivative?

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a. Diphenhydramine

b. Chlorpheniramine

c. Pyrilamine

d. Cyclizine

55 / 60

55. Clofazimine is a/an _____derivative. Or Which of the following heterocyclic ring is present in Clofazimine which is used for the treatment of leprosy?

AMC Pharmacist (05.11.2023), HPSSC Pharmacist(12.12.2020)

a. Phenazine

b. Pyrazi

c. Azepine

d. Phenothiazine

56 / 60

56. Reason for the combination of Diphenoxylate (2.5 mg) + Atropine (0.025 mg) is to_____

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. Inhibits the side effects of Diphenoxylate

b. Discourage abuse of Diphenoxylate

c. Augment the anti‐motility action of Diphenoxylate

d. Suppress gastroenteritis‐related vomiting

57 / 60

57. Which of the following agents is NOT a teratogen?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Tetracyciline

b. Thalidomide

c. Streptomycin

d. Amphotericin B

58 / 60

58. Which of the following is not an action of amphetamine?

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Decreasing systolic and diastolic BP

b. Increased mental and physical activity

c. Reduces appetite

d. Potent CNS stimulation

59 / 60

59. Bitter metallic taste is characteristic of drug

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Mepyramine

b. Glibenclamide

c. Tetracycline

d. Phenformin

60 / 60

60. Antihypertensive drugs are an example of:

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. regulated dose

b. standard dose

c. target level dose

d. titrated dose

Your score is

The average score is 38%

Biochemistry and Clinical Pathology 1

Biochemistry and Clinical Pathology Quiz 1

Get ready to test your knowledge in the field of Biochemistry and Clinical Pathology . Please click on the right option to answer the questions. Good luck!

Please login to participate in this Quiz!

NameEmail

1 / 58

1. Sucrose liberates glucose and fructose by hydrolysis of___

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Invertase

b. Amylose

c. Hyaluronidase

d. Lactase

2 / 58

2. How many isomers are possible for glucose

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. 12

b. 6

c. 8

d. 16

3 / 58

3. Which of the following is an example of a thermosetting plastic material?

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. Urethanes

b. Polypropylene

c. PVC

d. Polyester

4 / 58

4. Coenzyme FAD is derivative of_____

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Riboflavin

b. Niacin

c. Adenine

d. Thiamine

5 / 58

5. Chlorocresol has following functional groups attached to it:

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Two methyl groups, two hydroxyl groups and two chlorine

b. One methyl group, one hydroxyl group and one chlorine

c. Two methyl groups, two hydroxyl group and one chlorine

d. Two methyl groups, one hydroxyl group and one chlorine

6 / 58

6. Given below are two statements
Statement I: Sequencing of DNA is much easier than RNA sequencing due to greater stability
Statement II: The chemical method of DNA sequencing (Maxam & Gilbert) works for only single stranded DNA In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

b. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

c. Both Statement I and Statement II are false

d. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

7 / 58

7. Sodium in liquid ammonia is used in_____

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Stephen reduction

b. Clemenson reduction

c. Wolf-Kishner reduction

d. Birch reduction

8 / 58

8. Which of the following is the chif constituent of vinegar?

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Acetaldehyde

b. Acetic acid

c. Ethane

d. Methane

9 / 58

9. Coil of life is_______

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Chromosome

b. Chromatin

c. DNA

d. RNA

10 / 58

10. Chlorophyll is a naturally occurring chelate compound in which central metal is_____

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Iron

b. Magnesium

c. Copper

d. Calcium

11 / 58

11. Identify the heterocyclic ring:

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. Pyrimidine

b. Pyridazine

c. Pyrazine

d. Piperazine

12 / 58

12. Chemical formula for Hypophosphorus acid is:

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. H3PO2

b. HPH2O2

c. HPO2

d. H2P2O2

13 / 58

13. Identify the example of sulphur containing amino acid.

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a. Aspartic acid

b. Tyrosine

c. Cysteine

d. Glycine

14 / 58

14. A biological assay use to assess the mutagenic potential of a Pharmaceutical product is _____

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Ames test

b. Toxicity test

c. Antibiotic assay

d. Sterility test

15 / 58

15. Alpha naphthol and KOH is used for ……

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Citrate test

b. Methyl red test

c. Indole test

d. Voges-Proskauer test

16 / 58

16. Which sugar does not give a positive Benedict’s test?

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Maltose

b. Lactose

c. Sucrose

d. Glucose

17 / 58

17. Which of the following enzyme class is dependent on adenosine triphosphate?

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Oxidoreductases

b. Transferases

c. Hydrolases

d. Ligases

18 / 58

18. Which category of drugs that are prohibited to be imported:

Kerala PSC Pharmacist Gr.II(27.10.2022)

a. Unani Drugs

b. Misbranded Drugs

c. Schedule H drugs

d. Toilet preparations

19 / 58

19. Which of the following is meta directive:

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Cyano

b. Ester

c. All the above

d. Nitro

20 / 58

20. Terpenoid fenchone has following ring system:

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. One six member ring and one three member ring

b. Two six member rings

c. One six member ring and one five member ring

d. One six member ring and one four member ring

21 / 58

21. The intermediate of SN1 reaction is______

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Carbanion

b. Carbene

c. Carbocation

d. Ylide

22 / 58

22. “Hypo” is the synonym for:

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. Sodium Metabisulphite

b. Hypophosphorus acid

c. Sodium Bisulphite

d. Sodium Thiosulphate

23 / 58

23. Starting material for synthesis of sulphadiazine is:

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. 2-amino pyridine

b. 4-amino pyridine

c. 4-amino pyrimidine

d. 2-amino pyrimidine

24 / 58

24. Which of the following compound possess high aqueous solubility.

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Semisolid

b. Anhydrous

c. Crystals

d. Hydrated

25 / 58

25. High magnification of electron microscope is due to:

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. High voltage

b. Vacuum

c. Electron beam

d. Electromagnets

26 / 58

26. Pentose sugar gives which test positive?

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. Mucic acid test

b. Bials test

c. Inversion test

d. Full saturation test

27 / 58

27. IUPAC name of Sulphaguanidine is______

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. 2-(4-amino phenyl) sulphonyl guanidine

b. 2-(4-amino pyrimidine) sulphonyl guanidine

c. 4-(2-amino pyrimidine) sulphonyl guanidine

d. 4-(2-amino phenyl) sulphonyl guanidine

28 / 58

28. Cracks in lips is deficiency symptom of which vitamin?

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. B3

b. B4

c. B1

d. B2

29 / 58

29. Which of the following is not a lipid?

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Fat

b. Protein

c. Wax

d. Oil

30 / 58

30. Which of the following is NOT the IUPAC system of nomenclature?

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. 2-methyl propene

b. Isobutene

c. 2-butene

d. 1-butene

31 / 58

31. Which of the following is a non-metal that remains liquid at room temperature?

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Chlorine

b. Phosphorous

c. Helium

d. Bromine

32 / 58

32. Saturated fatty acid Arachidic acid contains _____ carbon atoms.

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. 16

b. 22

c. 20

d. 18

33 / 58

33. Chemical formula for talc is____

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. 3MgO.3SiO2.H2O

b. 4MgO.4SiO2.H2O

c. 4MgO.3SiO2.H2O

d. 3MgO.4SiO.HO

34 / 58

34. Which of the following is not aromatic?

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Cyclopentadiene

b. Tetracene

c. Cyclopentadienyl anion

d. Anthracene

35 / 58

35. Which of the following is a polar aprotic Solvent:

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Water

b. DMF

c. Chloroform

d. Ethanol

36 / 58

36. Identification test for Acetate is performed by heating sample solution with equal quantity of oxalic acid. Presence of acetate is detected by:

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. Red colour solution

b. Characteristic odour

c. Brown fumes

d. White precipitate

37 / 58

37. Blood: Gas partition coefficient of halothane is:

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. 0.46

b. 2.4

c. 1.8

d. 16

38 / 58

38. Role of tyrosine in body is____

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Production of hormones for immunity.

b. Use by brain to produce norepinephrine.

c. Transmit nerve impulses.

d. Helps alleviate insomnia.

39 / 58

39. Osmotic potential of pure water is_____

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Less than zero

b. Between zero and one

c. Zero

d. One

40 / 58

40. The normal range of cholesterol in the body is:

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. 150-200

b. 25-50

c. 100-150

d. 50-100

41 / 58

41. Crystallisation of sugar is due to______

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Low concentration

b. Unsaturation

c. Saturation

d. Drying

42 / 58

42. A molecule of amylopectin which contains 1500 glucose residues and is branched after every 30 residues. How many reducing ends are there?

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. 0

b. 2

c. 1

d. 5

43 / 58

43. Which sugar gives a positive seliwanoff’s test?

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. Glucose

b. Maltose

c. Lactose

d. Fructose

44 / 58

44. Staggered and eclipsed is a type of________

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Conformer

b. Geometrical isomer

c. Enantiomer

d. Tautomer

45 / 58

45. The pH of 0.1 M NaOH solution is:

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. 13

b. 5

c. 0.1

d. 1

46 / 58

46. Mixture of amino acids can be separated by______

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Distillation

b. Sublimation

c. Denaturation

d. Chromatography

47 / 58

47. Glucose 6 Phosphate requires _____ metal iron for activity.

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Cu2+

b. Mn2+

c. Fe2+

d. Mg2+

48 / 58

48. Which of the following is the simplest carbohydrate?

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Dihydroxyacetone

b. Glyceraldehyde

c. Acetoacetate

d. Glucose

49 / 58

49. Number of asymmetric carbon atoms in glucose is:

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. 4

b. 2

c. 3

d. 1

50 / 58

50. Rubber is______

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Monoterpene

b. Tetraterpene

c. Diterpene

d. Polyterpene

51 / 58

51. Coenzyme NAD is derivative of___

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. Niacin

b. Thiamine

c. Adenine

d. Riboflavin

52 / 58

52. An element essential as electron carrier is________

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Zinc

b. Calcium

c. Iron

d. Potassium

53 / 58

53. Hexokinase enzyme require _____ metal ions for activity.

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. Mg2+

b. Mn2+

c. Cu2+

d. K+

54 / 58

54. Which of the following vitamin helps in blood clotting?

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)/UPSSSC Pharmacist (26-03-2023)

a. Vitamin A

b. Vitamin C

c. Vitamin D

d. Vitamin K

55 / 58

55. Identify the heterocyclic structure:

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Piperazine

b. Pyrimidine

c. Pyrazine

d. Pyridazine

56 / 58

56. The incorrect statement with respect to thesolubility property of calcium hydroxide is:

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. It is freely soluble in water.

b. It is soluble in glycerol.

c. It is soluble in sugar solutions.

d. It is insoluble in alcohol.

57 / 58

57. The number of ATP produced when a molecule of acetyl CoA is oxidised through citric acid cycle is____

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual(04.08.2022)

a. 12

b. 15

c. 24

d. 38

58 / 58

58. Which of the following is a soft lewis/. acid .

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Al+3

b. Ag+

c. HX

d. BF3

Your score is

The average score is 22%

Pharmacognosy Quizz

Pharmacognosy Quiz

Get ready to test your knowledge in the field of Pharmacognosy. Please click on the right option to answer the questions. Good luck!

1 / 60

1. Diacetylmorphine is also known as_______

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual(04.08.2022)

a. Heroin

b. Charas

c. Cocaine

d. Ganja

2 / 60

2. In second year of cultivation Digitalis purpurea bear _____ type of leaves.

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Whorled

b. Alternate

c. Sessile

d. Rosette

3 / 60

3. Which of the following is true with regard to Ames test?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. It uses albino rats to assess hepatotoxicity of chemicals

b. (a) It uses rabbits to assess nephrotoxicity of chemicals.

c. It uses guinea pig to assess teratogenicity of chemicals.

d. It uses bacteria to assess genotoxicity of chemicals.

4 / 60

4. Most essential medicines should be formulated as:

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual(04.08.2022)

a. Single compound

b. Multiple compounds

c. Fixed does combination

d. No compound

5 / 60

5. Which is an example of absorption base?

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Macrogol

b. Coconut oil

c. PEG

d. Wool fat

6 / 60

6. A. Rutin is a Bioflavonoid.

B. Rutin is a flavonol glycosides

C. Rutin is used in Capillary bleeding

D. Rutin is used as Vitamin P

Which of the above are true for Rutin?

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. A and B only

b. A, B and C only

c. All of these

d. A, B and D only

7 / 60

7. The following chemical constituent is principally present in Asafoetida?

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a. Ferulic acid

b. Boswellic acid

c. Capsaicine

d. Styrene

8 / 60

8. Morphine posses main nucleus:

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Anthracene

b. Phenanthrene

c. Picene

d. Naphthalene

9 / 60

9. Which of the following equipment is recommended for in-house quality control pharmacognosy section?

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Polarimeter

b. Viscometer

c. Dissecting microscope

d. Refractometer

10 / 60

10. Eugenol is present in____

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Tulsi

b. Cardamom

c. Fennel

d. Coriander

11 / 60

11. Which of the following is used in the treatment of malaria?

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Cumin

b. Digitalis

c. Fennel

d. Cinchona

12 / 60

12. Anthranilic acid is an immediate precursor in the formation of:

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. Methidine

b. Ornithine

c. Tryptophan

d. Tyrosine

13 / 60

13. Adhatoda vasica is under the chemical class of which alkaloids:

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual(04.08.2022)

a. Indole

b. Quinoline

c. Quinazoline

d. Isoquinol ine

14 / 60

14. Which alkaloid belong to phenanthrene group:

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. Narceine

b. Thebaine

c. Noscapine

d. Papaverine

15 / 60

15. In providing health benefits _____ is preferred most.

UP NHM Pharmacist (28.12.2022)

a. Green tea

b. White tea

c. Oolong

d. Black tea

16 / 60

16. Bassorin is chemical constituent obtained from:

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Olive oil

b. Lanolin

c. Tragacanth

d. Guar

17 / 60

17. Asava is _____ type of ayurvedic dosage form.

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. liquid

b. semisolid

c. solid

d. powder

18 / 60

18. The red pepper containing flavonoid is:

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. lycopene

b. lerulic acid

c. lutein

d. luteolin

19 / 60

19. Ispaghula and sterculia prescribed in treatment of constipation act as:

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual(04.08.2022)

a. All of these

b. Bulk-forming laxatives

c. Stimulant laxatives

d. Stool softeners

20 / 60

20. Tropane nucleus is combination of:

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. Piperidine & oscine

b. Pyrolidine & oscine

c. Pyrolidine & pyridine

d. Pyrolidine & piperidine

21 / 60

21. The example of pseudo alkaloid:

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Caffeine

b. Arecoline

c. Lobeline

d. Hygrine

22 / 60

22. Which of the following substances is classified as deliriant poison?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Nicotine

b. Loganin

c. Hyoscyamine

d. Caffeine

23 / 60

23. Dioscin, a steroidal saponin glycoside of Dioscorea tubers after hydrolysis gives‐

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. Diosgenin + 1 Glucose + 2 Rhamnose

b. Diosgenin + 3 Rhamnose

c. Diosgenin + 2 Glucose + 1 Rhamnose

d. Diosgenin + 3 Glucose

24 / 60

24. Colour of digitalis leaves is_____

HPSSC Pharmacist(12.12.2020) & (22.08.2022)

a. Dark reddish green

b. Dark grayish green

c. Dark green

d. Dark purple green

25 / 60

25. Rancidity in the fixed oils generally show ‐

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. Higher Peroxide value as compared to the standards

b. Higher level of Unsaponifiable matter

c. Higher Iodine value as compared to the standards

d. Higher Acid value as compared to the standards

26 / 60

26. In case of Rauwolfia, which part of the plant is used as medicine?

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual(04.08.2022)

a. Leaves

b. Seeds

c. Roots

d. Stem

27 / 60

27. Which of the following can used as anti-dysenteric?

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a. Arjuna

b. Vinca

c. Digitalis

d. Catechu

28 / 60

28. The natural alkaloid used in the treatment of gout is: Or Which of the following is a seed drug?

ESIC Pharmacist (26.02.2019, Shift-II), AMC Pharmacist (05.11.2023)

a. Emetine

b. Colchicine

c. Cinchnine

d. Reserpine

29 / 60

29. __________ is the powder of the endosperm of the seed of Cyamopsis tetragonolobus.

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Sterculic gum

b. Guar Gum

c. Acacia Senegal

d. Gelatine

30 / 60

30. Ricinolic acid is obtained from _____.

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Tragacanth

b. Papain

c. Agar

d. Castor

31 / 60

31. The growth of a plant is affected by all the following parameters, EXCEPT:

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. altitude

b. morphology

c. rainfall

d. fertiliser

32 / 60

32. ______is a cardiac glycoside containing crude belonging to the apocynaceae family. Or Which of the following is a glycoside drug?

DSSSB Pharmacist (01.11.2019), AMC Pharmacist (05.11.2023)

a. Convallaria

b. Strophanthus

c. Digitalis

d. Adonis

33 / 60

33. Agar is______

HPSSC Pharmacist(12.12.2020), HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Pentapolysaccharide

b. Oligopolysaccharide

c. Heteropolysaccharide

d. Homopolysaccharide

34 / 60

34. The best quality of the Lemon oil is obtained by using‐

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. Enfleurage method

b. Hand press method

c. Hydrodistillation method

d. Extraction method

35 / 60

35. Penicillin-G is:

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. benzylpenicillin

b. carboxypenicillin

c. pHenoxymethylpenicillin

d. aminopenicillin

36 / 60

36. Which of the following contains pith in rhizomes, but NOT on root?

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Panax ginseng

b. Quillaia saponaria

c. Centella asiatica

d. Glycyrrhiza glabra

37 / 60

37. Time required to kill a specific microorganism at a given temperature under specific condition is called as:

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Thermal death time

b. Z value

c. D value

d. Inactivation factor

38 / 60

38. An example of short day plant is______

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Chrysanthemum

b. Maize

c. Radish

d. Wheat

39 / 60

39. Identify the correct biological source of Vinca.

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a. Terminalia officinalis

b. Catharanthus officinale

c. Cephalis roseus

d. Catharanthus roseus

40 / 60

40. Socotrine aloes are cultivated from species ___.

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Aloe spicata

b. Aloe barbadensis

c. Aloe perryi

d. Aloe ferox

41 / 60

41. Tunica adventitia is:

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. an outer layer of fibrous tissue in an artery

b. an inner lining of squamous epithelium in an artery

c. a middle layer of smooth muscle and elastic tissue in an artery

d. an inner layer of endothelium in an artery

42 / 60

42. HPTLC analysis is useful for following types of analysis of herbal drugs
A. Quantitative estimation of marker compound
B. Authentication of extracts
C. Detection of pesticides
D. Standardization of herbal drugs
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. A, B and D only

b. A and D only

c. D only

d. A, B, C and D

43 / 60

43. Thick extracts of drugs prepared by boiling decoction of drug with sugar/honey is _____ ayurvedic dosage form.

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Asavas

b. Avleha

c. Sattava

d. Netrabindu

44 / 60

44. The chemical constituent of lemon oil is:

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. Carvacrol

b. Menthol

c. Limonene

d. Geraniol

45 / 60

45. Which of the following plant is source of anticancer drug vinblastin?

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual(04.08.2022)

a. Madagascar Periwinkle

b. Rauwolfia

c. Emblica officinal is

d. Cinchona officinal is

46 / 60

46. Papaverine shows pharmacological activity:

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Emetic

b. Spasmolytic

c. Antipyretic

d. Antitussive

47 / 60

47. ‘Star spots’ present in the transverse section of decorticated Rhubarb rhizomes are‐

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. Pericyclic fibres

b. Concentric vascular bundles

c. Lignified cells

d. Crystals of calcium oxalate

48 / 60

48. Which of the following statements is true regarding amino glycoside antibiotics?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Amino glycoside antibiotics interfere with cell division of bacteria.

b. Amino glycoside antibiotics are more active in alkaline medium.

c. Anaerobic bacteria are more sensitive to amino glycoside antibiotics.

d. Amino glycoside antibiotics are bacteriostatic in nature.

49 / 60

49. Which of the following media is used for sterility test

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. MacConkey's medium

b. Nutrient medium

c. Ashby's agar medium

d. fluid thioglycollate medium

50 / 60

50. Choose the correct action of morphine :

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. Stimulate the release of catecholamines.

b. Suppresses vomiting.

c. Decrease the release of Acetylcholine.

d. Potentiates the actions of 5-hydroxy tryptamine.

51 / 60

51. The term' Pharmacognosy' was first introduced by:

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual (04.08.2022), AMC Pharmacist (05.11.2023)

a. Schmidt

b. Seydler

c. Sertuener

d. Pelletier

52 / 60

52. _______ are chemical substances produced by microorganisms.

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Antibiotics

b. Antihypertensive drugs

c. Local anaesthetics

d. Antihistaminic agents

53 / 60

53. ______ are the tubular elongated outgrowth of the epidermal cell.

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Trichomes

b. Leaf constants

c. Stomata

d. Water pores

54 / 60

54. Which of the following alkaloids shows blue fluorescence?

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Rauwolfia

b. Cinchona

c. Ergot

d. Vinca

55 / 60

55. What is caused by an overdose of morphine?

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. vestibular damage

b. myocardial damage

c. respiratory failure

d. renal failure

56 / 60

56. One of the following is an example of chemical method of evaluation:

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. Determination of volatile oil

b. Detection of alkaloids

c. Determination of vascular bundles

d. Determination of refractive index

57 / 60

57. cod liver oil is ______ Biological source of:

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Gadus morhua

b. plantago ovata

c. Hypoprion brevirostris

d. Sacccharomyces cerevisiae

58 / 60

58. The composition of Froehde's reagent is_____

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual(04.08.2022)

a. Ammonium molybdate + Sulphuric acid

b. Ferric chloride + sulphuric acid

c. Bismusth iodide + sulphuric acid

d. Postassium iodide + sulphuric acid

59 / 60

59. _____ drug is used as CNS stimulant.

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Vasaka

b. Hyoscyamus

c. Nux vomica

d. Myrrh

60 / 60

60. Type of alkaloids present in Colchicum:

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. Quinoline alkaloids

b. Amino alkaloids

c. Tropane alkaloids

d. Steroidal glycoalkaloids

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The average score is 41%

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