Pharma Quizzes for Competitive Exam

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Pharma Quizzes for Competitive Exam
Pharma Quizzes for Competitive Exam

Pharma Quizzes for Competitive Exam

Welcome to Pharma Quizzes for Competitive Exam – your ultimate destination for mastering pharmacy-related subjects through online quizzes. Whether you’re preparing for B Pharma or D Pharma exams, GPAT, NIPER, Drug Inspector exams, or various state and central pharmacist exams, we’ve got you covered! Our platform offers a wide range of quizzes tailored to the syllabus of these competitive exams. Best of all, new quizzes are added weekly, ensuring you always have fresh content to practice. And the best part? It’s completely free! Start your preparation today with our up-to-date quizzes and boost your confidence for exam day!

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Medicinal Chemistry-I Unit -1 25 Important MCQs

Medicinal Chemistry-I Unit -1 25 Important MCQs quiz helps us to increase our knowledge

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1 / 25

1. Which of the intermolecular bonding interactions below are possible for an alcohol?

a. van der Waals interactions only

b. Ionic bonding only

c. Both hydrogen bonding and ionic bonding

d. Hydrogen bonding only

2 / 25

2. Which of the following reactions is not a Phase I metabolic transformation?

a. oxidation of alkyl groups

b. reduction of ketones

c. conjugation to alcohols

d. ester hydrolysis

Explanation: Reactions which introduce, modify or reveal functional groups are phase I metabolic reactions. Conjugation reactions involve the attachment of a polar molecule to a polar functional group and are phase II metabolic reactions.

3 / 25

3. Functional groups of same valance and ring equivalents are known as

a. Enantiomers

b. Non- Classical Bioisosteres

c. Classical Bioisosteres

d. Geometrical isomers

4 / 25

4. Which one of the following factors related to protein-drug binding is not related to drugs?

a. Number of binding sites on the binding agent

b. The concentration of the drug in the body

c. The affinity of the drug for binding

d. Physicochemical characteristics of a drug

5 / 25

5. Which of the following statements is the closest description of Phase I metabolism?

a. Reactions which add a polar functional group to a drug.

b. Reactions which add a polar molecule to a functional group already present on a drug or one of its metabolites.

c. Reactions which occur in the blood supply.

d. Reactions which occur in the gut wall.

Explanation: Some phase I metabolic reactions can occur in the blood supply or the gut wall, but they do not take place exclusively at either of these sites. Most phase I reactions take place in the liver.

6 / 25

6. The most abundant plasma protein Is?

a. Globulin

b. Lipoprotein

c. Albumin (Human serum albumin)

d. Glycoprotein

7 / 25

7. In Lead and vanadium poisoning, which chelating agent Is used as an antidote?

a. Haemoglobin

b. Cyanocobalamine

c. Disodium EDTA

d. Dimercaprol

8 / 25

8. Which ester of Chloramphenicol is prepared to mask Its bitter taste?

a. Sodium

b. Hydrochloride

c. Palmitate

d. Salicylate

Explanation: esterification with palmetic acid decreases solubility in saliva while salicylic acid increases solubility

9 / 25

9. Which of the following enzymes is not involved in catalysing a Phase I metabolic reaction?

a. Esterases

b. Monoamine oxidases

c. Flavin-containing monooxygenases

d. Glucuronyltransferase

Explanation: Flavin-containing monooxygenases catalyse Phase I oxidation reactions. Monoamine oxidase catalyses the formation of aldehydes from primary amines. Esterases catalyse the hydrolysis of esters.
Glucuronyltransferase catalyses the transfer or attachment of a sugar moiety onto a polar functional group

10 / 25

10. Chelating agent Dimercaprol is used in the treatment of

a. Arsenic poisoning

b. Lead poisoning

c. Vanadium poisoning

d. All of above

11 / 25

11. Plasma proteins bound with drugs by formation of

a. Vander-waal’s force / Ionic interaction

b. Hydrogen bonding

c. Hydrophobc bonding

d. All of the above

12 / 25

12. Methyl Prednisolone and Phenobarbitone are water Insoluble but its which salt is water soluble?

a. Sodium

b. Hydrochloride

c. Salicylate

d. Palmitate

13 / 25

13. Which of the following characteristics is unfavorable to oral activity?

a. solubility in both aqueous and fatty environments

b. stability to digestive enzymes

c. susceptibility to metabolic enzymes

d. stability to stomach acids

Explanation: If an orally administered drug is rapidly metabolised, its lifetime will be short and this will be unfavorable to activity. Overcome by prodrugs.

14 / 25

14. For most of the chiral drugs, which enantiomer is more active?

a. R isomer

b. Always their racemic mixture

c. S isomer

d. It can’t be generalised

15 / 25

15. Only unbound or free drug is capable of being eliminated.

a. True

b. Drugs never eliminated

c. False

d. Cant say about this

Explanation: Because the drug- protein complex cannot penetrate into the metabolizing organ. The large molecular size of the complex also prevents it from getting filtered through the glomerulus

16 / 25

16. Which of the following statements is the closest description of Phase II metabolism?

a. Reactions which add a polar molecule to a functional group already present on a drug or one of its metabolites.

b. Reactions which occur in the blood supply.

c. Reactions which occur in the gut wall.

d. Reactions which add a polar functional group to a drug.

17 / 25

17. Which one of the following factor related to protein-drug binding is not related to drug Interactions with the binding site?

a. Allosteric changes in a protein molecule

b. Competition between the drug and the binding site

c. Inter subject variation

d. Competition between drugs and normal body constituents

Explanation : Competition between the drug and the binding site, competition between drugs and normal body constituents, allosteric changes in protein molecule these factors are related to drug interactions. Inter subject variation is a patient-related factor.

18 / 25

18. (+) Sotalol is beta blocker while (-) Sotalol is

a. Analgesic

b. beta blocker

c. Antidepressant

d. Antiarrhythmic

19 / 25

19. Which of the following statements best describes structure-activity relationships (SAR)?

a. The study of the structural features of a drug that are important to its biological activity.

b. The study of the physicochemical properties that are important to the absorption of a drug into the blood supply.

c. The study of the structural features of a drug that are important to its chemical stability.

d. The study of which functional groups are important to the chemical reactivity of the drug.

20 / 25

20. Which of the following is not primary but derived pharmacokinetic parameter

a. Plasma half life

b. Bioavilability

c. Distribution volume

d. Clearance

21 / 25

21. What is common in Warfarin, propranolol, ketamine and amphetamine

a. R configuration is more active than S configuration

b. None

c. both

d. S configuration is more active than R configuration

22 / 25

22. Absorption of Tetracycline is reduced in the presence of milk because of

a. Lonization

b. Protein binding

c. Hydrogen bonding

d. Chelation

23 / 25

23. Which of the following factors for protein drug binding is a drug Interaction factor?

a. Physicochemical characteristics of the protein or binding agent

b. Age

c. Physicochemical characteristics of a drug

d. Competition between drugs for the binding site

24 / 25

24. The most significant protein Involved In binding with a drug is

a. Albumin

b. Globulin

c. Lipoprotein

d. Glycoprotein

Explanation: The order of binding of drugs to various protein is Albumin > Glycoprotein >Lipoprotein > Globulin

25 / 25

25. D-Asparagine has sweet taste while L-Asparagine has…….. Taste

a. Sour

b. Sweet

c. Tasteless

d. Bitter

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Pharmaceutical Biochemistry Quiz 1

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1 / 36

1. Q. Lipids …

1. Include fats that are broken down into 3 fatty acid molecule and one glycerol molecules

2. Serve as food reserves in many organisms

3. Include cartilage and chitin

4. Are composed of monosaccharides

2 / 36

2. Q. Starch cellulose and glaycogen yield ________ on complete hydrolysis.

1. Fructose

2. Glucose

3. Sucrose

4. Maltose

3 / 36

3. Q. lf two monosaccharide differ in configuration around a single carbon atom, they are known as

1. Epimers

2. Bimers

3. None

4. Diclomers

4 / 36

4. Q. Antibodies play important role against microorganisms and other pathogens to which type of proteins do they belong?

1. None of these

2. Both a and b

3. Globular proteins

4. Fibrous Proteins

5 / 36

5. Q. Reactions in which simple substances are combined to form complex substances are called:

1. None of these

2. Metabolic reactions

3. Anabolic reactions

4. Catabolic reactions

6 / 36

6. Q. Lipids are soluble in which of the following :

1. Not in any of the above

2. Ether

3. Water

4. All solvents

7 / 36

7. Q. Which one is a fibrous protein?

1. Collagen

2. Hordein

3. Globulin

4. Haemoglobin

8 / 36

8. Q. Which structure of protein gives information about number and sequence of amino acids in it?

1. Quaternary structure

2. Secondary structure

3. Primary structure

4. Tertiary structure

The linear sequence of amino acids within a protein is considered the primary structure of the protein.

9 / 36

9. Q. Which of the following would most likely qualify as a macromolecule?

1. Protein

2. All of the above

3. DNA or RNA

4. Cellulose

10 / 36

10. Q. A macromolecule is composed of smaller units called:

1. isomers

2. monomers

3. isotopes

4. polymers

11 / 36

11. Q. Out of the following, cholesterol does not serve as a precursor for which compounds?

1. Sex hormones

2. Bile salts

3. Bile pigments

4. Vitamin D

12 / 36

12. Q. Which statement about the characteristics of biomolecules?

1. Most of them are organic compounds

2. All have specific shapes & functional groups

3. Structural & functional specification of a cell is defined by biomolecules

4. All of the above

13 / 36

13. Q. Glucose is a .....

1. Aldose hexose sugar

2. Furanose pentose sugar

3. Pyranose pentose sugar

4. Ketose hexose sugar

14 / 36

14. Q. The branch of biology which deals with the study of chemical compounds and the chemical processes in the living organisms is called:

1. Chemistry

2. Molocular biology

3. Biochemistry

4. Both a and b

15 / 36

15. Q. Which of the following is not a macromolecule?

1. protein

2. starch

3. nucleotide

4. lipid

5. e) DNA

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16. Q. Which of the statement is not true for compounds like glycoprotein and glycolipids?

1. Both have role in the extra cellular matrix of animals and bacterial cell wall

2. They are conjugated molecules of carbohydrates

3. They are components of biological membranes.

4. Both are produced and secreted by endoplasmic reticulum

17 / 36

17. Q. Which of the following carbohydrate can not be hydrolysed?

1. Monosaccharide

2. Polysaccharide

3. Oligosaccharide

4. None of these

18 / 36

18. Q. Which of the following carbohydrates is not a disaccharide?

1. Sucrose

2. Galactose

3. Lactose

4. Maltose

19 / 36

19. Q. The naturally occurring form of amino acid in proteins

1. D-amino acids only

2. Both L and D amino acids

3. L-amino acids only

4. None of these

20 / 36

20. Q. Nitrogen is a component of ......

1. Carbohydrates

2. Proteins

3. Lipids

4. Polyphosphates

21 / 36

21. Q. A compound produced as a result of a chemical reaction of an alcohol with an acid in which water molecule is released is called:

1. Fatty acid

2. Neutral lipid

3. Nucleic acid

4. Monosaccharide

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22. Q. A polypeptide containing disulfide bonds is likely to be rich in which of the following amino acids?

1. Glycine

2. Alanine

3. Cysteine

4. Valine

23 / 36

23. Q. What type of LIPIDS are found in all biological membranes?

1. Phospholipids

2. Waxes

3. Triglycerides

4. Diglycerides

24 / 36

24. Q. A bond formed by linkage between -OH of carboxyl group of one amino acid and H of amino group of another amino acid which releases water is called

1. Hydrogen bond

2. Glycosidic bond

3. Peptide bond

4. Phosphodiester linkage

25 / 36

25. Q. Unfolding of a protein can be termed as _________

1. Oxidation

2. Reduction

3. Denaturation

4. Renaturation

Explanation: The proteins lose their quaternary, tertiary, secondary structure and return to its native state by denaturation process.

26 / 36

26. Q. Which of the following are the most diverse molecules of a cell?

1. Proteins

2. Carbohydrates

3. Mineral salts

4. Lipids

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27. Q. A complex substance which on hydrolysis yields polyhydroxy aldehyde or ketone subunits is called:

1. Carotein

2. Protein

3. Lipid

4. Carbohydrate

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28. Q. Which one of the following compounds forms the 'backbone' of fats and oils?

1. Glucose

2. Glycerol

3. An amino alcohol

4. Palmitic acid

Fats and oils belong to the family of compounds called triacylglycerols. This name gives us a clue as to the identity of a key structural component of these compounds: glycerol.

29 / 36

29. Q. Hemoglobin molecule exhibits which structural organization of proteins

1. Quaternary structure

2. Tertiary structure

3. Primary structure

4. Secondary structure

The quaternary structure of a protein is the association of several protein chains or subunits into a closely packed arrangement.

30 / 36

30. Q. Which is a reducing sugar?

1. β-methyl galactosidase

2. Gluconic acid

3. Galactose

4. Sucrose

A reducing sugar is any sugar that is capable of acting as a reducing agent. In an alkaline solution, a reducing sugar forms some aldehyde or ketone, which allows it to act as a reducing agent, for example in Benedict's reaction. In such a reaction, the sugar becomes a carboxylic acid.

31 / 36

31. Q. Actin and myosin are the basic proteins involved in contractile machinery of our body to which type of proteins do they belong?

1. None of these

2. Fibrous Proteins

3. Both a and b

4. Globular proteins

32 / 36

32. Q. Which of the following statement is incorrect for fats containing unsaturated fatty acid?

1. They are lighter than water

2. Their specific gravity is less than 1

3. They are usually solid at room temperature

4. They contain double bond

33 / 36

33. Q. The covalent bond between two monosaccharide subunits is called:

1. Phosphodiester bond

2. Peptide bond

3. Ionic bond

4. Glycosidic Bond

34 / 36

34. Q. ____________ is a basic unit of a carbohydrate.

1. Monosaccharide

2. Nucleotide

3. Amino Acids

4. Glycerol

35 / 36

35. Q. A functional protein is

1. Ossein

2. Enzyme

3. Vitamin

4. Collagen

36 / 36

36. Q. Amino acids are the building blocks for

1. Proteins

2. Steroids

3. Carbohydrates

4. Lipids

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The average score is 54%

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Herbal Drug Technology Quiz 1

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1 / 52

1. Spirulina is another name of-

1. Fungi

2. Cynobacterium

3. Bacteria

4. Alkaloids

2 / 52

2. Phytosterols are useful in

1. Inhibit absorption of cholesterol

2. All

3. Improve serum lipid profile

4. Lower LDL levels

3 / 52

3. Nutraceutical products are divided into…………… categories

1. Three

2. Four

3. Two

4. One

4 / 52

4. According to Ayurveda concept “Satwa” means

1. Body

2. Perceptory Organs

3. Soul

4. Mind

5 / 52

5. ________ which become the standard medical reference work of the Arab World.

1. Siddha

2. Ayurveda

3. Galenicals

4. The Canon of Medicine

6 / 52

6. The Siddha science is a traditional treatment system generated from ________ culture

1. Kerala

2. Maharashtra

3. Indian

4. Tamil

7 / 52

7. Siddha is extensively practiced in which part of India.

1. Northern parts

2. Western parts

3. All of these

4. Southern parts

8 / 52

8. Phytochemicals are of……. types

1. Three

2. Seven

3. Five

4. One

9 / 52

9. In China, Mao Zedong reintroduced Traditional Chinese Medicine, which relied heavily on herbalism, into the health care system in-

1. 1959

2. 1950

3. 1949

4. 1940

10 / 52

10. Siderophores are-

1. Both a and b

2. Microbial iron deficiency compounds

3. Microbial iron Chelating compounds

4. None

11 / 52

11. Taking garlic along with medications used for HIV/AIDS might __________ effectiveness -

1. Decrease

2. Nothing will happen

3. Increase

4. Random

12 / 52

12. Omega-3 fatty acid is useful in

1. Cause vasodilation

2. Lower platelet aggregation

3. All

4. Lower the inflammation

13 / 52

13. Another name of fenugreek is

1. Saffron

2. Garlic

3. Methi

4. None

14 / 52

14. Advantages of biopesticides are

1. Natural

2. All

3. Less toxic

4. Effective in small concentration

15 / 52

15. ________ represents the fluids (extra cellular and intracellular parts) of the human body.

1. Rasa

2. Kapha

3. Pittas

4. Vata

16 / 52

16. Who gave the word "Pharmacognosy" ?

1. Bentham in 1862

2. Both a and b

3. Schmidt in 1811

4. C.A. Seydler in 1815

The term Pharmacognosy was first introduced by the Austrian physician Schmidt in 1811 and then in 1815 by Seydler in a work titled Analecta Pharmacognostica.

17 / 52

17. St John's wort along with alprazolam might _________ the effectiveness of alprazolam

1. Random

2. Nothing will happen

3. Increase

4. Decrease

18 / 52

18. Which of the following uses management practices that are intended to “restore, maintain and enhance ecological harmony.”

1. None of these

2. Pest control

3. Integrated pest control

4. Biodynamic agriculture

19 / 52

19. Herbicides is -

1. Sulfhuric acid

2. DDT

3. 2,4 dichilorophenoxyacetic acid

4. Warfarin

20 / 52

20. Cephalosporin is obtained from-

1. Cephalosporium acreminium

2. Streptomyces lenjimariesis

3. None of these

4. Dictyopteris zonaroides

21 / 52

21. Rudolf Steiner initially developed in ____, it was the first of the organic agriculture movements.

1. 1630

2. 1924

3. 1947

4. 1753

22 / 52

22. Garlic along might _______ the effectiveness of warfarin-

1. Random

2. Increase

3. Nothing will happen

4. Decrease

23 / 52

23. Who said “Let food is your medicine and medicine is your food”

1. Galen

2. Hippocrates

3. Agatsya

4. Charaka

24 / 52

24. Rodenticides is-

1. Sulfhuric acid

2. Tetradifon

3. DDT

4. Warfarin

25 / 52

25. The first herbal to be published in English was the anonymous Grete Herball of

1. 1972

2. 1612

3. 1525

4. 1947

26 / 52

26. Who is known as Father of Medicine ?

1. Aristotle(384-322B.C)

2. Theophrastus(370-287B.C)

3. Dioscorides(40-80A.D)

4. Hippocrates(460-360B.C)

27 / 52

27. The largest global market for medicinal and aromatic plants is

1. India

2. China

3. All

4. Japan

28 / 52

28. Which of the following is natural occurring antioxidant.

1. Alpha lipoic acid

2. Vitamin C

3. Vitamin E

4. All

29 / 52

29. The oldest repositories of human knowledge is______ .

1. None of these

2. Atharvaveda (4200-5000 BC)

3. Rig-Veda (4500-4600 BC)

4. Ayurveda (5000-5400 BC)

30 / 52

30. Stramonium leaves gathered in the-

1. Morning

2. Evening

3. Afternoon

4. Midnight

31 / 52

31. Organic farming means

1. Used organic fertilizers

2. To optimize productivity

3. Not to use pesticides

4. All

32 / 52

32. Taking garlic along with birth control pills might-

1. Random

2. Nothing will happen

3. Increase effectiveness of birth control pills

4. Decrease effectiveness of birth control pills

33 / 52

33. Biochemical pesticides are

1. Microbial pesticides

2. Bio- pesticides

3. All of the above

4. Antibiotics

34 / 52

34. Alfalafa is useful in

1. None

2. Prevent cancer

3. Help in digestion

4. Reduce weight

35 / 52

35. The term organic farming was coined by-

1. Vivekananda

2. Lord Northbourne

3. Adolf Jennifer

4. Charles Darwin

36 / 52

36. Which of the following Nutraceutical is used in the treatment of cancer

1. Ginseng

2. Garlic

3. Green tea

4. All

37 / 52

37. Which is a broad- based approach that integrates practices for economic control of pests.

1. General pest control

2. None of these

3. Integrated fungal control

4. Integrated pest control

Integrated pest management (IPM), also known as integrated pest control (IPC)

38 / 52

38. What is fullform of PIP?

1. Plant incorporated pesticides

2. None

3. Plant incorporated pollutant

4. Plant incorporated protectants

39 / 52

39. The Chinese Pharmacopoeia is how much old?

1. 4000 years

2. 5000 years

3. 2000 years

4. 3000 years

40 / 52

40. The method which involves the mashing/pounding of raw materials to release the juice is

1. Both a and b

2. None

3. Kalka

4. Svarasa

41 / 52

41. According to Ayurveda PITA (Bile) is responsible for

1. Lubrication of various points of friction

2. Transmitting sense impression to the mind

3. Providing the static energy for holding body tissue together

4. All digestive and metabolic activities

42 / 52

42. Full form of MPP is

1. Middle Procurement Product

2. Medicinal Product Processing

3. Modern Products Processing

4. None of them

43 / 52

43. Ginkgo thins the blood and decrease its ability to form-

1. Clot

2. RBC

3. WBC

4. Plasma

44 / 52

44. Taking hydrochlorothiazide along with ginkgo might-

1. Can not Say

2. Decrease the blood pressure

3. Increase blood pressure

4. No Change on Blood pressure

45 / 52

45. Cinchona and Tulsi belongs to the family-

1. Rubiaceae and Labiatae

2. Rubiaceae and Lamiaceae

3. Apocynaceae and Rutaceae

4. None of these

46 / 52

46. The Ebers Papyus (c. 1550 BC) from ancient Egypt has a prescription of ________ applied topically for inflammation.

1. Tea

2. Cannabis Sativa (marijuana)

3. Tobacco

4. Alovera

47 / 52

47. St John's wort along with aminolevulinic acid might increase the chances of-

1. Random

2. Emetic action

3. Sunburn

4. Acidity

48 / 52

48. The earliest known Greek herbals come from Theophrastus of Eresos who in the ________ wrote in Greek Historia Plantarum.

1. 1981

2. 12 th B. C.

3. 4th century (350 BC)

4. 456

49 / 52

49. “Kumari” is common name for

1. Rhubarb

2. Aloe

3. None of them

4. Senna

50 / 52

50. People taking antidepressant such as monoamine oxidase inhibitors should not take food containing tyramine as it produce crisis of

1. Hypertensive

2. Hyperactive

3. All

4. Depressive

51 / 52

51. The members of the D.T.A.B. (Drugs Technical Advisory Board) hold the office for a period of

1. Three Year

2. Four Year

3. One Year

4. Two Year

52 / 52

52. Processing of herbal raw materials include

1. Specific processing

2. Drawing

3. Primary processing

4. All

Your score is

The average score is 38%

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Pharmaceutical Organic Chemistry Quiz 1

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1 / 25

Which of the following matches of names and molecules are correct ?

1. A and III, B and IV

2. none of the above

3. A and II, C and IV

4. C and III, D and IV

5. B and II, D and I

2 / 25

Which of following is the correct IUPAC name of the following compound?

1. 3-methyl-4-chloropent-2-ene

2. 2-chloro-3-methylpent-3-ene

3. 4-chloro-3-methylpent-2-ene

4. 3-methyl-2-chloropent-3-ene

3 / 25

Look at the displayed formula of an organic compound. What is the name of this compound?

1. Ethanoic acid

2. Propanol

3. Propanoic acid

4. Ethanol

4 / 25

4. Which compound is a positional isomer of 1-chloropentane?

1. CH(CH3)2CHCICH3

2. CH3CHCH3CH₂CH₂CI

3. CH₂CIC(CH3)3CI

4. CH3CH₂CHCH₂CH₂CI

5 / 25

5. Organic compounds can be classified even based upon the function groups. Identify the one which is not a functional group?

1. Carbonyl

2. Carboxyl

3. Isocyano

4. Isocyanide

6 / 25

6. Which statement is not a characteristic of a homologous series?

1. Same chemical reactions

2. Same physical properties

3. Members differ from one another by CH2

4. Same functional group

7 / 25

7. The Compounds CH3CH2OCH2CH3 and CH3OCH2CH2CH3 are

1. Chain Isomers

2. Position isomers

3. Functional isomers

4. Metamers

Explanation: Metamers Compounds having the same molecular formula but different alkyl groups on either side of the functional group.

8 / 25

8. Aliphatic compound is the other name for

1. Acyclic compounds

2. Ring compounds

3. Closed chain compounds

4. Alicyclic compounds

Explanation: open chain compounds or acyclic compounds are otherwise called as aliphatic compounds.
An alicyclic compound contains one or more all-carbon rings which may be either saturated or unsaturated, but do not have aromatic character

9 / 25

Which of the following compounds is named correctly according to the IUPAC system of nomenclature?

1. 1,1-chloro-2-bromoethane

2. 2-bromo-1,1-dichloroethane

3. 2-bromo-1-dichloroethane

4. 1,1-dichloro-2-bromoethane

10 / 25

10. Which of the following is not a characteristic of organic compounds

1. They usually have low melting points

2. They always have carbon atoms

3. They always have ionic bonds

4. They are slightly soluble or insoluble in water

11 / 25

11. The substituent in the chain is named by replacing the “ane” in the alkanes by

1. one

2. ic

3. yl

4. ene

Explanation: ene, ic and one are used for representing alkenes, carboxylic acids, and ketones respectively. They called Alkyl groups

12 / 25

12.

Which of the following compounds has the formula C8H18?

1. cyclooctane

2. 2,2,3,3-tetramethylbutane

3. 2,2,3-trimethlyoctane

4. 2-methylhexane

13 / 25

13. One of the major sources of organic compounds is

1. Fermentation

2. Sea water

3. Coal & natural gases

4. Atmosphere

14 / 25

14. The element most and least likely to be present in an organic compounds are

1. Nitrogen & Hydrogen

2. Hydrogen & Sulphur

3. Hydrogen & Oxygen

4. Hydrogen & Silicon

15 / 25

15.

Which of following is the correct IUPAC name of the following compound?

1. 2-hydroxybutanoic acid

2. 1-carboxypropan-2-ol

3. 3-hydroxybutanoic acid

4. 2-hydroxypropanoic acid

16 / 25

16. Which among the following is not an example of alicyclic compound?

1. Cyclohexene

2. Acetic acid

3. Tetrahydrofuran

4. Cyclohexane

17 / 25

17. Which of the following is not a type of structural isomerism?

1. Functional group

2. Chain

3. Geometric

4. Position

18 / 25

18. An isomer of ethanol is:

1. diethyl ether

2. dimethyl ether

3. methanol

4. acetone

19 / 25

19.

Which of (a)-(d) is the correct IUPAC name of the following compound?

1. 4-ethylpent-3-ene

2. 4-methylhex-3-ene

3. 2-ethylpent-2-ene

4. 3-methylhex-3-ene

20 / 25

20. Which compound is different from the others?

1. methyl ethyl ketone

2. pentan-2-one

3. methyl propyl ketone

4. 2-pentanone

21 / 25

21.

How many tautomers can you draw for the following ketone?

1. 1

2. 4

3. 3

4. 2

It envolves alpha hydrogen

22 / 25

22. Choose the incorrect option regarding Isomerism.

1. There are two types of Isomerism : Structural and Stereo Isomerism

2. They have the different molecular formula

3. Geometric and optical isomerism are two types of Stereo Isomerism

4. They differ in both physical and chemical properties

23 / 25

23. According to vital force theory

1. Organic compounds cannot be synthesized from inorganic compounds

2. Organic compounds can be synthesized by plants

3. Organic compounds can be synthesized by animals

4. Organic compounds can be synthesized from inorganic compounds

24 / 25

24. If the position of functional group varies in each of its isomer then its is

1. chain isomerism

2. functional group isomerism

3. none of above

4. position isomerism

25 / 25

25. The molecular formula C5H12 contains how many isomeric alkanes?

1. 3

2. 2

3. 1

4. 4

Your score is

The average score is 34%

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Pharmaceutical Quality Assurance Quiz 1

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1 / 25

1. The lack of proper training to the employees can act as a barrier to TQM implementation

a. False

b. True

2 / 25

2. What is ISO?

a. Indian Organization for Standard

b. None

c. Internal Organization for Standard

d. International Organization for Standard

3 / 25

3. Match the following:

a. A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2

b. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

c. A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2

d. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

4 / 25

4. A company including its manager has 50 members. TQM philosophy is followed by 40 members only. Did the company properly implement TQM?

a. We cannot comment on TQM implementation

b. Yes, only 25 members were sufficient for TQM implementation

c. No, TQM implementation requires the participation of all members of the company

d. Yes, only 14 members were sufficient for TQM implementation

Explanation: The highest priority of TQM is customer satisfaction. So, all 50 members must participate in TQM implementation.

5 / 25

5. The guidelines that describe the stability testing of drug substances and drug products are?

a. ICH Q8

b. ICH Q9

c. ICH Q2

d. ICH Q1

6 / 25

6. What is QA?

a. It is a corrective tool

b. Process of identifying defects

c. Any systematic process used to ensure quality in the process

d. It is the measurement of degree to which a product satisfies the need

Explanation: QA is a systematic process that ensures the quality of the product and guarantees to the user that the product will be safer and more reliable.

7 / 25

7. Quality is conformance to requirements. Identify the quality guru who said this.

a. Ishikawa

b. Deming

c. Crosby

d. Ohno

8 / 25

8. What is the first step of QA?

a. Material control

b. Servicing

c. Identification of customer need

d. Development of standards

9 / 25

9. Arrange the steps of QA in ascending order?

a. Material control, process control, customer need, design development, finished product

b. Customer needs, material control, design development, process control, marketing

c. Material control, servicing, process control, material control, design development

d. Customer needs, design development, material control, process control, finished product

Explanation: Scheme of QA starts with customer need. They have to be converted into the development of a specification, followed by quality and measurement control, material control and convert into the finished product.

10 / 25

10. According to Deming’s Quality Chain Reaction, quality improvement results in decreased productivity.

a. True

b. False

Explanation: According to Deming’s Quality Chain Reaction, quality improvement results in improved productivity, profits, customer satisfaction, and market share. It also results in reduced prices and costs.

11 / 25

11. EMS stands for-

a. Environmental management system

b. Employee management system

c. Engineering management system

d. Equipment management system

12 / 25

12. Which ‘pillar of TQM’ is referred to when the study of customer needs is done.

a. Continuous Improvement

b. Process Management

c. Employee Empowerment

d. Customer Focus

Explanation: Customer Focus is one of the pillars of TQM. In customer focus, customer satisfaction remains an organization’s highest priority. The other pillars of TQM are Process Management, Employee Empowerment, and Continuous Improvement.

13 / 25

13. ICH stands for?

a. International Conference for harmonization

b. Indian Council for harmonization

c. International Council for Harmonization

d. Indian Conference for harmonization

14 / 25

14. Validation is an example of

a. Calibration

b. Quality Assurance

c. Quality Control

15 / 25

15. The objective of ISO-9000 family of quality management is-

a. Employee satisfaction

b. Environmental issues

c. Skill enhancement

d. Customer satisfaction

16 / 25

16. Quality is fitness for use. Identify the quality guru who said this.

a. Deming

b. Crosby

c. Taguchi

d. Juran

17 / 25

17. How can quality be quantified? (Q=Quality, P=Performance, E=Expectations)

a. Q=P*E

b. Q=P/E

c. Q=P+E

d. Q=P-E

Explanation: Mathematically, quality can be quantified as Q=P/E. Here, if Q is greater than 1, the customer has a good feeling about the performance of the product or service.

18 / 25

18. What is TQM?

a. Total Quality Managers

b. Total Quality Management

c. Total Quality Mitigation

d. Total Quality Maintenance

19 / 25

19. The role of management is to-

a. Provide Resources

b. Define EMS

c. Monitor the Effectiveness

d. All

20 / 25

20. Which of the following is for Environment Management?

a. ISO-14000

b. ISO-26000

c. ISO-31000

d. ISO-9000

21 / 25

21. - P-D-C-A stands for-

a. Process- Do- Chek- Act

b. Plan- Do- Correct- Act

c. Plan- Do- Check- Act

d. Process- Do- Correct- Act

22 / 25

22. Which of the following option is correct regarding QA and QC?

a. QC is an integral part of QA

b. QC may or may not depend on QA

c. QA is an integral part of QC

d. QA and QC are independent to each other

23 / 25

23. ISO 14001 gives stress on-

a. Prevention rather than detection

b. All

c. Environmental Protection

d. Plan-Do-Check-Act

24 / 25

24. Total Quality Management focuses on-

a. Customer

b. None

c. Employee

d. Customer and Employee

25 / 25

25. GMP are directed primarily at

a. Ensuring that all products are made in accordance with the formula.

b. Minimizing risks in production that can not be prevented through testing of finished products

c. Ensuring that all products are tested according to specifications.

d. Preventing cross-contamination only

Your score is

The average score is 53%

Time Over......

Pharmacology Quiz

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1 / 44

1. Regarding inhaled anaesthetics:

a. nitrous oxide causes a decrease in tidal volume and an increase in respiratory rate

b. they decrease the metabolic rate in the brain by decreasing cerebral blood flow

c. they reduce mean arterial pressure in direct proportion to their alveolar concentration

d. nitrous oxide has a relatively low minimum alveolar concentration

e. halogenated agents have a lower brain : blood partition coefficient

2 / 44

2. Warfarin:

a. Loading should be initiated with 0.5mg / day

b. Can cause venous thrombosis

c. Inactivates Vit K

d. Is 90% bioavailable

e. Effect is ameliorated by metronidazole via a bactericidal affect

3 / 44

3. Which of the following are antagonist and agonist pairs for the same receptor:

a. phenyoxybenzamine, cyclopentolate

b. oxymetazoline, dobutamine

c. bromocriptine, pranipexole

d. butoxamine, terbutaline

e. pilocarpine, bethanechol

4 / 44

4. GTN has its major effect on effort angina by:

a. Reducing afterload and preload

b. Reduction in renin-ang II system effect

c. Reducing coronary vasospasm

d. Systemic vasoconstriction

e. Coronary vasodilation

5 / 44

5. Volume of distribution:

a. AUC / Dose

b. Amount of drug in body / Concentration of drug in plasma

c. Is always a real volume

d. Amount of drug in plasma / Concentration in body

e. Concentration of drug in plasma / Amount of drug in blood

6 / 44

6. ACE inhibitors:

a. cause hyperkalaemia less often in patients with diabetes

b. are contraindicated in patients on NSAIDS

c. lead to decreased prostaglandin synthesis

d. decrease levels of bradykinin

e. decrease glomerular efferent arteriolar resistance

7 / 44

7. The following drug may be used safely in pregnancy:

a. Propylthiouracil

b. Digoxin

c. Carbamazepine

d. Methotrexate

e. Streptomycin

8 / 44

8. Regarding first pass metabolism:

a. the extraction ratio of phenytoin is higher

b. its effect on bioavailability is expressed as the extraction ratio where ER = CL (liver) /Q (liver)

c. it reduces the bioavailability of oral morphine to 15%

d. it makes it impossible to attain therapeutic levels of lignocaine using oral dosage

e. it affects volume of distribution

9 / 44

9. Toxicity of nicotine containing products:

a. will result in several days of nausea and vomiting

b. can be symptomatically controlled with benzodiazepines

c. will have no effects on the foetus

d. may result in neuromuscular blockade best treated with atropine

e. usually causes hypotension

10 / 44

10. Regarding antibiotic resistance:

a. penicillin’s inability to penetrate the organism is more common with gram –ve bacteria

b. beta lactamase are identical but produced by different bacteria

c. betalactamase production is responsible for penicillin resistance in pneumococci

d. penicillin resistance is mainly because of alteration in the target PBPs

e. methicillin resistance in staphylococcus is due to betalactamase production

11 / 44

11. Regarding calcium channel blockers:

a. not all are active when given orally

b. dihydropyridines typically cause bradycardia

c. mechanism of action is the blockage of voltage dependent L-type calcium channels

d. most have half lives of 8-12 hours

e. they do not affect bronchiolar smooth muscle

12 / 44

12. Heparin:

a. Oral bioavailability is 20-30%

b. Binds to anti-thrombin III causing a conformational change

c. Inhibits clotting by decreasing anti-thrombin III effects

d. Molecular weight ranges from 3,000 – 60,000

e. Is low plasma protein bound

13 / 44

13. Of the secondary messengers:

a. phosphoinositides act independently of phospholipase -C

b. upregulation of cAMP degradation is one way theophylline produces its effects

c. cAMP’s effector enzyme is adenylyl cyclase

d. compared to cAMP, cGMP is a more versatile and ubiquitous carrier of diverse messages

e. all of the above

14 / 44

14. Cephalosporins are:

a. excreted via the kidneys in the tubules

b. all of the above

c. are classified on the basis of antibacterial activity

d. excreted in the bile

e. drugs that can undergo hepatic metabolism

15 / 44

15. The following are true for adrenaline EXCEPT

a. It has no active metabolites

b. In cardiac arrest it facilitates CPR via peripheral varioconstruction

c. It may be administered via inhalation, orally and parentally

d. Alpha receptor stimulation results in decreased cAMP production

e. It acts via G-proteins

16 / 44

16. Drugs with no significant effect on anticoagulant therapy include:

a. amiodarone

b. flucanazole

c. disulfiram

d. metronidazole

e. benzodiazepines

17 / 44

17. Regarding diazepam:

a. It undergoes extensive enterohepatic recirculation

b. It has no spinal inhibitory action

c. It is a GABA antagonist via the benzodiazepine receptors

d. It has no active metabolites

e. Activated charcoal is useful in overdose

18 / 44

18. Most b blockers:

a. Are highly lipid soluble and hence cross the blood-brain barrier

b. Have poor oral bioavailability

c. Have half lives of 3-10 hours

d. Are rarely excreted unchanged

e. Have a small volume of distribution

19 / 44

19. With regard to oral anti-asthmatic agents:

a. macrolide antibiotics show no benefit in managing asthmatics

b. cyclosporin’s toxicity limits its use as an oral anti-asthmatic agent

c. oral nifedipine significantly inhibits exercise-induced bronhoconstriction

d. prednisone is a long acting glucocorticoid

e. methotrexate has been shown to be beneficial in prednisone-dependent asthmatics in all studies

20 / 44

20. The following are side effects of SSRI’s EXCEPT:

a. anxiety

b. rash

c. weight gain

d. gastrointestinal symptoms

e. sexual dysfunction

21 / 44

21. Aspirin:

a. Causes an immediate doubling of bleeding time

b. Is hydrolysed to acetone and salicylate

c. Is mostly conjugated by the liver and excreted in the bile

d. Exhibits first order kinetics with elimination in low doses

e. Reversibly blocks the cyclooxygenase enzyme

22 / 44

22. Regarding active immunisation:

a. the meningococcal vaccine should be given to asplenic individuals

b. primary immunisation for haemophilis influenzae type B involves two doses given one month apart

c. the measles vaccine is an inactivated virus

d. booster doses for yellow fever are not required

e. the hepatitis B vaccine is preferably given by subcutaneous injection

23 / 44

23. Dobutamine:

a. decreases myocardial oxygen consumption

b. may be used in heart failure

c. is a non selective beta agonist

d. predominantly affects D2 receptors in the central nervous system

e. has no arrhythmogenic effect

24 / 44

24. Haloperidol:

a. is particularly prone to producing arrhythmias

b. is particularly prone to producing hypotensive side-effects

c. is particularly prone to producing a toxic confusional state

d. is particularly prone to producing extrapyramidal side-effects

e. is particularly prone to producing anti-muscarinic side-effects

25 / 44

25. All are true about penicillins EXCEPT:

a. Penicillins inhibit cross linkage of peptidoglycans in cell wall

b. Most penicillins only cross blood-brain barrier when the meninges are inflamed

c. Only about 5-10% of people with a past history of penicillin allergy have a reaction on re-exposure

d. Penicillins don’t require adjustment in renal failure

e. Piperacillin is a penicillin active against pseudomonas

26 / 44

26. Regarding glucocorticoids:

a. Inhibition of leucocyte and tissue macrophages is not an action of glucocorticoids

b. A normal adult male secretes 100mg of cortisol each day

c. Absence of cortisol increases the response of vascular and smooth muscle tone to catecholamines

d. Feedback suppression of pituitary ACTH occurs within hours

e. The major glucocorticoid in humans is cortisol

27 / 44

27. Clearance:

a. is independent of concentration for phenytoin

b. is constant for most drugs in clinical settings at therapeutic levels

c. is inversely proportional to volume of distribution

d. is very high for lithium

e. is the amount of drug eliminated divided by the concentration of the drug

28 / 44

28. Regarding NSAIDS:

a. aspirin at a does of  2g/day reduces uric acid levels

b. at high doses aspirin demonstrates first order kinetics

c. all NSAIDS can be found in synovial fluid after repeated dosing

d. aspirin is a reversible inhibitor of cyclooxygenase

e. use of ibuprofen and aspirin together increases the anti-inflammatory effect

29 / 44

29. With regard to non-depolarising neuromuscular blocking drugs:

a. vecuronium is eliminated predominantly via the kdney

b. rocuronium undergoes Hoffman elimination

c. pancuronium is eliminated via the kidney

d. rocuronium is an isoquinolone derivative

e. atracurium is eliminated via plasma pseudocholinesterases

30 / 44

30. Regarding drugs used in the treatment of status epilepsy:

a. administration of phenytoin should be at a minimum rate of 50mg/min

b. phenytoin is useful in status for its sedating as well as anticonvulsant activity

c. the effect of diazepam is long lasting

d. phenytoin may be diluted in both saline and dextrose

e. respiratory depression is a common complication of phenobarbitone

31 / 44

31. Regarding biotransformation, which of the following is true:

a. phenytoin inhibits theophylline metabolism

b. griseofulvin inhibits warfarin metabolism

c. ethanol enhances methanol metabolism

d. rifampicin inhibits oral contraceptives metabolism

e. grapefruit juice inhibits cyclosporin metabolism

32 / 44

32. Bioavailability is:

a. is the percentage of a drug formulation that is absorbed

b. is close to 80% for orally administered verapamil

c. less than 100% by any route

d. is equivalent to absorption minus the extraction rate for an orally administered drug

e. is not affected by first pass metabolism

33 / 44

33. Which of the following antihypertensives act on the vasomotor centre:

a. Hydralazine

b. Methyldopa

c. Iosartan

d. Prazosin

e. Reserpine

34 / 44

34. Regarding opioids:

a. people with Addison’s disease have normal response to opioids

b. tolerance develops with miosis

c. at the spinal level, only the receptors contribute to analgesia

d. neonates have a blood – brain barrier for opioids

e. the most reliable indicator of respiratory depression is a depressed response to CO2 challenge

35 / 44

35. Effects of b blockers include:

a. stimulation of the release of renin

b. inhibition of glycogenolysis in the liver

c. stimulation of lipolysis via the sympathetic nervous system

d. inhibition of bronchial smooth muscle spasm

e. stimulation of aqueous humour production

36 / 44

36. Age associated changes in pharmacokinetics include:

a. a decrease in body fat

b. a decreased absorption related to age alone

c. a greater reduction in conjugation compared with oxidation

d. an increase in body water

e. a reduction in creatinine clearance in two thirds of the population

37 / 44

37. Which statement is false:

a. drug A with a lower potency must have a lower efficacy than drug B

b. none of the above

c. drug A with a higher affinity for its drug receptors have a higher potency

d. drug A with a higher potency can have a lower efficacy than drug B

e. drug A with a higher potency than drug B, can still have the same efficacy

38 / 44

38. Atropine:

a. Causes an increase in salivary gland secretions

b. Produces miosis

c. Can cause bronchodilation

d. Blocks reuptake of ACH

e. Is not lipid-soluble

39 / 44

39. Which of the following receptor-ligand pathway is TRUE:

a. Adrenaline and ligand gated channel receptor

b. Vitamin D and intracellular receptor

c. Mineralocorticoid and tyrosine kinase receptor

d. Insulin and G-protein receptor

e. Platelet derived growth factor and cytokine receptor

40 / 44

40. Trimethoprim:

a. activates dihydrofolic acid reductase

b. is harmless in pregnancy

c. has limited activity in the prostate gland

d. does not distribute into the CSF

e. is a weak base

41 / 44

41. Tricyclic antidepressants:

a. Is useful in severe depression with strong suicidal ideation

b. Can prolong QT interval

c. Have a low volume of distribution

d. Block the enzyme which degrades amine neurotransmitters

e. Are useful in urinary retention and chronic pain

42 / 44

42. Regarding phenytoin, all the following are true EXCEPT:

a. elimination kinetics shift from first order to zero order at moderate to high dose

b. half life varies from 12-36 hours

c. binds poorly with plasma proteins

d. oral bioavailability is variable

e. metabolism is enhanced in presence of inducers of liver metabolism

43 / 44

43. Local anaesthetic agents:

a. can be used with a vasodilator to prolong local action

b. prevent repolarisation of the membrane

c. activity is enhanced by high extracellular (Ca++)

d. activity is enhanced by high extracellular K+ concentration

e. are primarily potassium channel blockers

44 / 44

44. Amiodarone:

a. Increases peripheral resistance

b. Has little effect on the lung

c. Effects Na+, K+ channels but not Ca2+ channels

d. Has a short half life

e. Has antianginal effects

Your score is

The average score is 34%

INTRODUCTION TO BIOCHEMISTRY

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1 / 40

1. The absorption of intact protein from the gut in the foetal and newborn animals takes place by

a. Pinocytosis

b. Passive diffusion

c. Simple diffusion

d. Active transport

2 / 40

2. Milk is deficient of which mineral?

a. Phosphorus

b. Sodium

c. Iron

d. Potassium

3 / 40

3. The Golgi complex

a. Synthesizes proteins

b. Produces ATP

c. Provides a pathway for transporting chemicals

d. Forms glycoproteins

4 / 40

4. Which of the following is required for crystallization and storage of the hormone insulin?

a. Mn++

b. Mg++

c. Ca++

d. Zn++

5 / 40

5. HDL is synthesized and secreted from

a. Pancreas

b. Liver

c. Kidney

d. Muscle

6 / 40

6. A drug which prevents uric acid synthesis by inhibiting the enzyme xanthine oxidase is

a. Aspirin

b. Allopurinol

c. Colchicine

d. Probenecid

7 / 40

7. Synthesis of prostaglandinsis is inhibited by

a. Aspirin

b. Arsenic

c. Fluoride

d. Cyanide

8 / 40

8. The fatty acids can be transported into and out of mitochondria through

a. Active transport

b. Facilitated transfer

c. Non-facilitated transfer

d. None of these

9 / 40

9. Which of the following is located in the mitochondria?

a. Cytochrome oxidase

b. Succinate dehydrogenase

c. Dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase

d. All of these

10 / 40

10. Mature erythrocytes do not contain

a. Glycolytic enzymes

b. HMP shunt enzymes

c. Pyridine nucleotide

d. ATP

11 / 40

11. Which of the following phospholipids is localized to a greater extent in the outer leaflet of the membrane lipid bilayer?

a. Choline phosphoglycerides

b. Ethanolamine phosphoglycerides

c. Inositol phosphoglycerides

d. Serine phosphoglycerides

12 / 40

12. From the biological viewpoint, solutions can be grouped into

a. Isotonic solution

b. Hypotonic solutions

c. Hypertonic solution

d. All of these

13 / 40

13. Mitochondrial DNA is

a. Circular double stranded

b. Circular single stranded

c. Linear double helix

d. None of these

14 / 40

14. The ability of the cell membrane to act as a selective barrier depends upon

a. The lipid composition of the membrane

b. The pores which allows small molecules

c. The special mediated transport systems

d. All of these

15 / 40

15. The digestive enzymes of cellular compounds are confined to

a. Lysosomes

b. Ribosomes

c. Peroxisomes

d. Polysomes

16 / 40

16. Which are the cholesterol esters that enter cells through the receptor-mediated endocytosis of lipoproteins hydrolyzed?

a. Endoplasmin reticulum

b. Lysosomes

c. Plasma membrane receptor

d. Mitochondria

17 / 40

17. The power house of the cell is

a. Nucleus

b. Cell membrane

c. Mitochondria

d. Lysosomes

18 / 40

18. The following points about microfilaments are true except

a. They form cytoskeleton with microtubules

b. They provide support and shape

c. They form intracellular conducting channels

d. They are involved in muscle cell contraction

19 / 40

19. The cellular organelles called “suicide bags” are

a. Lysosomes

b. Ribosomes

c. Nucleolus

d. Golgi’s bodies

20 / 40

20. In mammalian cells rRNA is produced mainly in the

a. Endoplasmic reticulum

b. Ribosome

c. Nucleolus

d. Nucleus

21 / 40

21. The phenomenon of osmosis is opposite to that of

a. Diffusion

b. Effusion

c. Affusion

d. Coagulation

22 / 40

22. Which one is the heaviest particulate component of the cell?

a. Nucleus

b. Mitochondria

c. Cytoplasm

d. Golgi apparatus

23 / 40

23. The degradative Processess are categorized under the heading of

a. Anabolism

b. Catabolism

c. Metabolism

d. None of the above

24 / 40

24. All the following processes occur rapidly in the membrane lipid bilayer except

a. Flexing of fatty acyl chains

b. Lateral diffusion of phospholipids

c. Transbilayer diffusion of phopholipids

d. Rotation of phospholipids around their long axes

25 / 40

25. Enzymes catalyzing electron transport are present mainly in the

a. Ribosomes

b. Endoplasmic reticulum

c. Lysosomes

d. Inner mitochondrial membrane

26 / 40

26. Carrier protein can

a. Transport only one substance

b. Transport more than one substance

c. Exchange one substance to another

d. Perform all of these functions

27 / 40

27. Bulk transport across cell membrane is accomplished by

a. Phagocytosis

b. Pinocytosis

c. Extrusion

d. All of these

28 / 40

28. The most active site of protein synthesis is the

a. Nucleus

b. Ribosome

c. Mitochondrion

d. Cell sap

29 / 40

29. The exchange of material takes place

a. Only by diffusion

b. Only by active transport

c. Only by pinocytosis

d. All of these

30 / 40

30. Which of the following statement is correct about membrane cholesterol?

a. The hydroxyl group is located near the centre of the lipid layer

b. Most of the cholesterol is in the form of a cholesterol ester

c. The steroid nucleus form forms a rigid, planar structure

d. The hydrocarbon chain of cholesterol projects into the extracellular fluid

31 / 40

31. Which one is the largest particulate of the cytoplasm?

a. Lysosomes

b. Mitochondria

c. Golgi apparatus

d. Entoplasmic reticulum

32 / 40

32. Genetic information of nuclear DNA is transmitted to the site of protein synthesis by

a. rRNA

b. mRNA

c. tRNA

d. Polysomes

33 / 40

33. The average pH of Urine is

a. 7.0

b. 6.0

c. 8.0

d. 0.0

34 / 40

34. The pH of blood is 7.4 when the ratio between H2CO3 and NaHCO3 is

a. 1 : 10

b. 1 : 20

c. 1 : 25

d. 1 : 30

35 / 40

35. The following substances are cell inclusions except

a. Melanin

b. Glycogen

c. Lipids

d. Centrosome

36 / 40

36. Oxidation of which substance in the body yields the most calories

a. Glucose

b. Glycogen

c. Protein

d. Lipids

37 / 40

37. Milk is deficient in which vitamins?

a. Vitamin C

b. Vitamin A

c. Vitamin B2

d. Vitamin K

38 / 40

38. A lipid bilayer is permeable to

a. Urea

b. Fructose

c. Glucose

d. Potassium

39 / 40

39. Fatty acids can be transported into and out of cell membrane by

a. Active transport

b. Facilitated transport

c. Diffusion

d. Osmosis

40 / 40

40. The surface tension in intestinal lumen between fat droplets and aqueous medium is decreased by

a. Bile Salts

b. Bile acids

c. Conc. H2SO4

d. Acetic acid

Your score is

The average score is 51%

Pharmaceutics Quiz 1

Get ready to test your knowledge in the field of Pharmaceutics. Please click on the right option to answer the questions. Good luck!

Please login to participate in this Quiz!

1 / 82

1. A patient purchasing sublingual nitroglycerin tablets should be told to store the medication:

a. in the refrigerator.

b. in a plastic vial with a childproof cap.

c. with the original cotton.

d. in an amber glass bottle with a metal cap.

e. in a warm, dry place

2 / 82

2. suspension eye drop differ than ophthalmic solution in:

a. less commonly used

b. decrease contact time of drug with eye

c. used for insoluble drugs

d. less commonly used & used for insoluble drugs

3 / 82

3. According to good practice, when dispensing a medication the pharmacist is required to:

a. provide written instructions

b. provide verbal advice

c. ask whether the patient has any problems with the medication

d. all

4 / 82

4. A patient information leaflet:

a. is addressed to the prescriber

b. is only available for medicines presented in bulk dispensing packs

c. usually includes the recommended International Non-propri-etary Name (rINN) of the drug

d. just for advertisement

5 / 82

5. qod means:

a. Three times daily

b. Every day

c. Four times daily

d. Every other day

6 / 82

6. A woman comes to the pharmacy with severe sunburn. Which of the following should be advised?

a. apply a soothing antiseptic cream

b. drink plenty of water

c. apply local anaesthetic

7 / 82

7. OTC means:

a. Over the content

b. Over the counter Drugs

c. On the counter

d. Ophthalmic Drugs

8 / 82

8. When a drug is administered as a solid oral dosage form, the first process that occurs is:

a. absorption

b. disintegration

c. dissolution

d. ionization

e. metabolism

9 / 82

9. The stability of the pharmaceutical products is affected by the following factors except:

a. Temperature and humidity

b. Composition of the drug product

c. Dosage form and the packaging material

d. Dose strength and paksize

10 / 82

10. The pH for acidic preparation is:

a. 7

b. More than 7

c. Less than 7

d. 5.5 – 8.5

11 / 82

11. What is the most appropriate treatment that could be dispensed over-the-counter for irritation caused by contact dermatitis?

a. Eurax cream

b. Canesten HC cream

c. Hydrocortisone cream

d. Clarityn tablets

e. Pevaryl cream

12 / 82

12. In pharmaceutical manufacturing, process validation:

a. GMP requirement

b. aims to ensure that the final product produced is of the expected quality

c. GMP and aims to ensure that the final product produced is of the expected quality

d. should be carried out independently by the quality assurance Department

13 / 82

13. Eight fluid ounce equal to:

a. 240 ml

b. 120 ml

c. 60 ml

d. none of the above

14 / 82

14. The amount in grams of sodium bicarbonate that are contained in a10 mL disposable syringe of 4.2% w/w sodium bicarbonate is:

a. 0.00042

b. 0.0042

c. 0.042

d. 0.42

e. 4.2

15 / 82

15. tid means:

a. Three times per day

b. Two times per day

c. Four times per day

d. Once daily

16 / 82

16. When advising a patient on the correct use of eye drops, which one of the following statements is incorrect?

a. tilt your head back and pull down the lower lid of your eye with the index finger

b. hold the tip of the dropper against the lower lid

c. gently squeeze the dropper so that the correct number of drops are released

d. close the eye for 2–3 minutes and wipe any excess liquid from your face with a tissue

e. replace and tighten cap

17 / 82

17. Polymers are used in pharmaceutical manufacturing as:

a. suspending agents

b. binding agents

c. emulsifying agents

d. all

18 / 82

18. The refrigerator in the pharmacy that is used for storage of pharmaceutical products should be kept at a temperature of:

a. 0–3˚C

b. 2–8˚C

c. 5–10˚C

d. 6–12˚C

e. 3–8˚C

19 / 82

19. Convert 18 μg to milligrams:

a. 18000

b. 1800

c. 0.0018

d. 0.018

e. 0.18

20 / 82

20. bid means:

a. Three times per day

b. Two times per day

c. Four times per day

d. Once daily

21 / 82

21. The maximum volume that should be given as a single intramuscular injection at one site is:

a. 20 mL

b. 0.1 mL

c. 1.0 mL

d. 5 mL

e. 2 mL

22 / 82

22. How many milliliters of ampicillin do you have to dispense if the patient needs to take 2 tsp qid for 7 days:

a. 280 mls

b. 560 mls

c. 840 mls

d. 350 mls

23 / 82

23. Barrier creams:

a. protect the skin from becoming macerated

b. consist of silicones and zinc

c. may be used to protect against napkin dermatitis

d. all

24 / 82

24. A solution of sodium chloride contains 500 mg of sodium chloride made up to 100 mL with water. Express this solution as a percentage w/v:

a. 500

b. 50

c. 5

d. 0.5

e. 0.05

25 / 82

25. When 500 mL of a 10% ammonia solution are diluted to 1000 mL, the percentage v/v is:

a. 20

b. 10

c. 5

d. 0.05

e. 0.5

26 / 82

26. How much magnesium sulfate is in 10 ml of a 200 mg/ml magnesium sulfate solution?

a. 1 gm

b. 2 gm

c. 3 gm

d. 2.5 gm

27 / 82

27. The latin abbreviation for “After Meals” is:

a. a.c.

b. a.a.

c. p.c.

d. i.c.

28 / 82

28. Which of the following is parenteral rout of administration?

a. Subcutaneous

b. IM

c. IV

d. All of the above

29 / 82

29. The amount in millligrams of hydrocortisone required to prepare 30g of hydrocortisone 0.1% w/w cream is:

a. 0.0003

b. 0.003

c. 0.03

d. 0.3

e. 30

30 / 82

30. The latin abbreviation for “Every Night” is:

a. a.c.

b. o.n.

c. p.c.

d. c.c

31 / 82

31. The volume of distribution of a drug describes:

a. the apparent distribution of the drug in the body

b. the concentration of the drug in plasma

c. the volume of plasma that is cleared from the body

d. the concentration of the drug in blood

e. the rate of elimination of the drug from the body

32 / 82

32. Concentration of normal saline:

a. 9%

b. 5.3%

c. 0.9%

d. 90 %

33 / 82

33. drugs have different crystal structures so different in

a. polymorphism

b. solubility

c. crystalitis

d. drug form

34 / 82

34. In pharmaceutical manufacturing, the Qualified Person:

a. ensures that standards of good practice in manufacturing are complied with

b. establishes the period of validity of the manufacturer’s licence

c. may revoke a manufacturer’s licence

d. ensures that good accounting practices are implemented in the administration department

e. advises the Licensing Authority on the granting of a manufacturer’s licence

35 / 82

35. Content of ORS:

a. NaCl+ Na lactate+ K citrate

b. Glucose+ NaCl+ Na citrate+ K citrate

c. NaCl+ Na lactate+ K citrate+ MgOH

d. Glucose+ fructose+ NaCl+ KCl+ Na citrate+ K citrate (Glucose + NaCl + KCl + Na-citrate or bicarbonate)

36 / 82

36. Which of the following effect is not considered in formation of suspension?

a. Use of chelating agent

b. of whiting agent

c. article size

d. non of the above

37 / 82

37. Which is disadvantage relating to oral drug administration?

a. Least economical

b. Drug taken orally may cause emesis

c. Drug taken orally may be destroyed by gastric acidity & may be metabolized by GIT flora

d. Drug taken orally may be inconsistenly absorbed due to the presence of food

e. All

38 / 82

38. enzyme kinetics law

a. Michaelis–Menten law.

b. Henry s law.

c. Franks law.

d. Henderson hassel bach law.

39 / 82

39. most described dosage solid form:

a. powder

b. tablet

c. soft capsule

d. hard capsule

40 / 82

40. Insulin Storage at:

a. 0 ˚C

b. 4-8 ˚C

c. 24 ˚C

d. 25 ˚C

41 / 82

41. Content of patient file is:

a. name+ age+ gender+ diagnosis+ medication

b. name + diagnosis

c. Medication only

d. name+ age+ gender+ telephone

42 / 82

42. When dispensing acarbose, the patient should be advised:

a. to take tablets in the morning

b. to avoid direct sunlight

c. that flatulence and diarrhoea may occur

d. to take tablets in the evening

43 / 82

43. Patient medication records should include all EXCEPT:

a. medication allergies

b. diagnosis

c. current medication therapy

d. pets kept at home

e. age

44 / 82

44. Pharmacoepidemiology:

a. concerns adverse reactions

b. relates to drug elimination from the body

c. is the study of the use and effects of drugs in a large number of people

d. is the analysis of drug disposition factors

e. relates to drug wastage

45 / 82

45. A patient is administered 500 mL normal saline over 4 hours using 10 drops/mL infusion set. The infusion rate in drops/minute is:

a. 2

b. 5

c. 10

d. 13

e. 21

46 / 82

46. The usual expiration date that should be placed on a cream prepared in a pharmacy is:

a. 1 week

b. 2 weeks

c. 4 weeks

d. 8 weeks

47 / 82

47. Bioavailability describes the relative amount of drug that reaches the:

a. kidney

b. systemic circulation

c. liver

d. stomach

e. small intestine

48 / 82

48. An investigational medicinal product is:

a. a product intended to induce a specific alteration in the immunological response

b. a product consisting of a toxin

c. a product prepared from homeopathic stocks

d. a pharmaceutical form of an active substance being tested or used in a clinical trial

e. a product prepared in a pharmacy in accordance with a prescription

49 / 82

49. Constituents of calamine lotion BP include calamine and:

a. aluminium oxide

b. sodium chloride

c. zinc oxide

d. magnesium hydroxide

e. calcium carbonate

50 / 82

50. Non-pharmacological methods that lower blood pressure includes all EXCEPT:

a. decreasing alcohol consumption

b. taking small, frequent meals

c. relaxation techniques

d. regular exercise

e. stopping smoking

51 / 82

51. Adsorption, which is not true

a. Chemical property

b. Physical property

c. Reversible

d. Irreversible

e. A & d

52 / 82

52. The % v/v concentration of a solution of mivacurium 500 µg/mL is:

a. 0.0005

b. 0.005

c. 0.05

d. 0.5

e. 50

53 / 82

53. Insulin syringes:

a. are calibrated in mL

b. are calibrated in units

c. a large gauge needle is required

d. maximum volume is 5 mL

e. needle length is 10 cm

54 / 82

54. The use of a suspension as a parenteral preparation is contraindicated when the route of administration is:

a. subcutaneous

b. intramuscular

c. intravenous

d. intradermal

e. intra-articular

55 / 82

55. Quality control is control of:

a. condition

b. specification

c. shelf life

d. All above

56 / 82

56. Constituents of oral rehydration salts include all EXCEPT:

a. sodium chloride

b. magnesium hydroxide

c. glucose

d. potassium chloride

e. sodium citrate

57 / 82

57. The following properties are similar for both solutions and suspensions:

a. A. The components of both solutions and suspensions can be separated from each other by physical processes.

b. B. Solutions and suspensions are composed of two or more components.

c. C. Solute in the solutions and suspensions settle out over a period of time.

d. Both A and B

58 / 82

58. A 1% w/v solution of a local anaesthetic contains:

a. 1 mg in 100 mL

b. 1 g in 100 mL

c. 10 mg in 1 mL

d. 1 g in 1 mL

e. 100 mg in 100 mL

59 / 82

59. Medication storage requirements in a pharmacy include:

a. temperature control for medicines that are temperature labile

b. separation of storage of medicines from non-pharmaceutical products

c. locked cabinet for controlled drugs

d. all

60 / 82

60. A patient is prescribed 3 L normal saline over 12 hours using a 5 drops/mL infusion set. The infusion rate in drops/minute is:

a. 5

b. 12

c. 15

d. 21

e. 25

The patient should be given 3000 mL over 720 minutes (12 hours 60 min-utes).
Since 5 drops make 1 mL then 15 000 drops (3000 mL 5 drops) are required for
3000 mL. Hence 15 000 drops should be infused over 720 min-utes at a rate of 20.8 (15 000/720) or 21
drops/minute.

61 / 82

61. The amount in grams of a powder required to make 5 L of an aque-ous solution at a concentration of 2% w/v of the anhydrous substance is (the powder contains 5% w/w moisture):

a. 10

b. 25

c. 26.32

d. 100

e. 105

62 / 82

62. Hypertonic solutions can be adjusted by:

a. Add Nacl salt to solution

b. add any other salt

c. Make dilution by add more solvent

d. This solution cannot be adjusted

e. one of the above

63 / 82

63. Prescription Must contain all of the following except:

a. Name of the patient

b. Diagnosis

c. Single or Married

d. Dosage form

64 / 82

64. If the Prescription is not clear:

a. Return it to the Doctor

b. Give it to the Pharmacist

c. Dispense the clear drugs

d. Return it to the patient

65 / 82

65. Good pharmacy practice guidelines:

a. comply with ISO 9000

b. consist of an audit process

c. entail field observation studies

d. have been established by the International Pharmaceutical Federation (FIP)

e. relate to pharmaceutical marketing

66 / 82

66. Drugs least likely to penetrate across membranes?

a. Protein bound drugs

b. Charged drugs

c. Neutral drugs

d. None

67 / 82

67. Within the pharmaceutical industry, the department which ensures that the facilities and systems adopted are adequate is:

a. research and development department

b. analytical methods department

c. production department

d. quality assurance department

e. quality control department

68 / 82

68. A stock solution is diluted to make a 1-in-5 strength solution. The amount in millilitres of the stock solution that is present in 250 mL of the resulting solution is:

a. 1

b. 25

c. 50

d. 250

e. 1250

69 / 82

69. The following liquids are least likely to be miscible:

a. polar + polar

b. non-polar + polar

c. non-polar + non-polar

d. all of the above will be miscible

70 / 82

70. 5000 mg equals 0.005:

a. grams

b. kilograms

c. micrograms

d. centigrams

e. nanograms

71 / 82

71. A pharmacist is required to dispense 30 g of 0.5% hydrocortisone ointment. The pharmacist has available a hydrocortisone ointment 1%. How many grams of the 1% ointment could be diluted with white soft paraffin to prepare this order?

a. 15 g

b. 30 g

c. 0.15 g

d. 0.5 g

e. 1.5 g

72 / 82

72. The % concentration v/v of a 50 g cream that contains 1.25 g ketoprofen is:

a. 0.02

b. 1.25

c. 2.5

d. 25

73 / 82

73. Which of the following dosage form can be administrated orally?

a. Spray

b. Suppositories

c. Ointment

d. Elixir

74 / 82

74. protect from light" in usp means :

a. air tight container

b. plastic container

c. Light resistant container

d. Amber glass

e. Amber plastic

75 / 82

75. Solid dosage forms are better than Solution dosage form because:

a. Accurate dose

b. Easy to handle

c. More stable

d. Faster action

e. Accurate dose, Easy to handle & More stable

76 / 82

76. Alginic acid is found in some antacid preparations. The primary function is to:

a. act as an antifoaming agent

b. accelerate gastric emptying

c. prevent refluxing into the oesophagus

d. act as an antimuscarinic

e. act as a flavouring agent

77 / 82

77. Controlled released drug delivery depends on:

a. Body fluid interaction

b. Enzymatic reactions

c. Ready programmed&no influece of the body fluid

d. Stomach PH

78 / 82

78. A patient asks for an over-the-counter cold remedy. The pharmacist could appropriately suggest:

a. Otrivine drops

b. Beecham’s Hot Lemon and Honey powders

c. Atarax tablets

d. Actifed Compound Linctus

e. Karvol inhalation capsules

79 / 82

79. At 25° C, benzoic acid is much more soluble in benzene (C6H6) than it is in water. In this situation benzoic acid could be considered to be:

a. Hydrophilic

b. Colloidal

c. Non-polar

d. Polar

80 / 82

80. Drug stored in the body in

a. fat

b. protein

c. connective tissue

d. muscle

e. A & B

81 / 82

81. qid means:

a. Three times per day

b. Two times per day

c. Four times per day

d. Once daily

82 / 82

82.

Factors that affect drug absorption include all EXCEPT:

a. drug half-life

b. gastric motility

c. blood flow

d. food intake

e. pH at absorption site

Your score is

The average score is 56%

Pharmaceutics Quiz 2

Get ready to test your knowledge in the field of Pharmaceutics. Please click on the right option to answer the questions. Good luck!

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NameEmail

1 / 54

1. 8 gm of water are needed to make 160 gm of 5% w/w solution of K acetate.

a. True

b. False

2 / 54

2. Injection in spinal fluid called:

a. Intrathecal injection

b. Intramascular

c. Intrapretonial

d. Intraarticular

3 / 54

3. The ability of a liquid to dissolve is :

a. hydrophilicity

b. miscibility

c. immiscibility

d. solubility equilibrium

4 / 54

4. The mixture of acacia, water, and oil will be

a. lotion

b. Suspension

c. Solution

d. Emulsion

5 / 54

5. How many grams of substance X are needed to prepare 100 cc from solution 1:1000 ?

a. 10 mg

b. 0.01 mg

c. 100 mg

d. 1000 mg

6 / 54

6. Advantages of tablets over liquid dose forms include the following

a. Enhanced stability

b. Ease of administration

c. Greater accuracy of dosing

d. All above

7 / 54

7. What is the concentration of solution, if we dilute 100 ml 5% of antiseptic solution to 200 ml?

a. 10%

b. 5%

c. 2.5%

d. 0.5%

8 / 54

8. How many grams of water needed to prepare 150 gm of potassium acetate solution with concentration 4% w/w?

a. 157

b. 144

c. 66

d. 6

9 / 54

9. 10 grains equal how much grams

a. 0.0065

b. 0.065

c. 0.65

d. 6.5

10 / 54

10. Ophthalmic solutions should be formulated to include which of the following?

a. Sterility

b. Isotonicity

c. Buffering

d. all above

11 / 54

11. All of these are the components of calamine lotion B.P. except

a. ZnO

b. Calamine

c. Sodium citrate

d. Bentonite

e. Sodium sulphate

12 / 54

12. Enteric coated tablets

a. pass the stomach and release in the intestine

b. pass the stomach and intestine

c. release in the stomach

13 / 54

13. Which of the following factors affect the distribution of a drug?

a. Lipid solubility

b. Plasma protein binding

c. Polarity

d. Molecular size

e. All of the above

14 / 54

14. How many grams of water are used to prepare 60 g of potassium acetate solution with have concentration of 5% w/w:

a. 300 gm

b. 57 gm

c. 3 gm

d. 5.7 gm

15 / 54

15. Alcohol present in pharmacy as antiseptic is in concentration:

a. 65%

b. 60%

c. 70%

d. 68%

16 / 54

16. The mixture of liquid paraffine and water will be

a. solution

b. lotion

c. emulsion

d. elixir

e. drops

17 / 54

17. Gums are used in tabletting primarily as

a. Disintegrators

b. Glidants

c. Lubricants

d. Binding agents

18 / 54

18. Which of the following is NOT a primary literature

a. gournal of pharmacy practice

b. applied therapeutic & clinical use of drug

c. new England Journal of medicine

d. Loncet

e. JAMA

19 / 54

19. Drugs to pass B.B.B. should be:

a. Unionized hydrophilic.

b. Ionized hydrophilic.

c. Unionized lipophilic.

d. Ionized lipophilic

20 / 54

20. Crystalline insulin is:

a. Cloudy

b. Clear

c. Unclear

d. Non above

21 / 54

21. 25 oC = ……. oF

a. 31.66

b. 77

c. 13

d. -3.8

22 / 54

22. How many milliliters of a NS solution can be made from 4500 mg of sodium chloride?

a. 0.5 L

b. 5 L

c. 50 L

d. None of the above

23 / 54

23. The concentration of one drug is 1:100, if the patient takes 900 ml at the morning and 600 ml in the evening, How much drug will the patient take in 15 days?

a. 15 mg

b. 15 gm

c. 225mg

d. 225gm

24 / 54

24. Surfactant not used orally:

a. Na lauryl sulphate.

b. Tween

c. Span

25 / 54

25. three grains equal………mg

a. 168

b. 65

c. 195

d. None of the above

26 / 54

26. HOW can prepare 100 ml of 12% MgCl by taking?

a. 12ml of MGCL dissolve in 100 ml water

b. 12 mg of Mgcl dissolve in 100 ml water

c. 12ml of MGCL dissolve in 1000 ml water

d. 12gm of MGCL dissolve in 1000 ml water

27 / 54

27. Sustained release tablets depend on:

a. PH of stomach

b. PH of Large Intestine

c. PH of Small Intestine

d. None of these

28 / 54

28. H2o + Nacl final will be:

a. Suspension

b. Emulsion

c. Solution

d. Lotion

29 / 54

29. WFI characterized by:

a. Free from sodium

b. Free from Ca and K

c. Pyrogen free

d. All above

30 / 54

30. 0.5 NS solution contains……….milligram sodium chloride in 30 ml.

a. 0.27

b. 270

c. 135

d. 0.135

31 / 54

31. Tween 20 is:

a. eflocoulant

b. lipohpilic surfactant

c. preservative

d. hydrophilic surfactant

32 / 54

32. Natural emulsifying agent is:

a. Span

b. Acacia

c. Tween

d. all above

33 / 54

33. A medicine expires "January 2001" it must not be used after

a. January 01,2001

b. January15,2001

c. January 31,2001

d. December 31,2001

34 / 54

34. Which of the following consider Parenteral Administration?

a. Subcutaneous

b. Oral

c. Aa

d. All

35 / 54

35. Most drugs are

a. Strong electrolytes

b. Weak electrolytes

c. Non electrolytes

d. Highly ionic

e. None of the above

36 / 54

36. 1 milliliter =…….minims

a. 14.23

b. 15.23

c. 16.23

d. None of the above

37 / 54

37. Controlled released drug delivery depends on:

a. Ready programmed & no influence of the body fluid.

b. Enzymatic reactions.

c. Body fluid interaction.

d. Stomach Ph.

e. All of them

38 / 54

38. MMR vaccine is

a. measles vaccine

b. mumps vaccine

c. rubella vaccine

d. measles-mumps-rubella vaccine

39 / 54

39. Normal saline conc.:

a. 9%

b. 4.5%

c. 0.9%

d. 90%

40 / 54

40. What is the concentration of mercurochrome solution?

a. 2%

b. 0.2%

c. 0.02%

d. 0.002%

41 / 54

41. The conc. Of the drug on expiration date is

a. not less than 100 %

b. not less than 90 %

c. from 90-110 %

d. none of the above

42 / 54

42. D10W means……………..

a. solution containing 10 mg dextrose in 100 ml water

b. solution containing 10 mg dextrose in 100L water

c. solution containing 10 gm dextrose in 1000 ml water

d. solution containing 10 gm dextrose in 100 ml water

43 / 54

43. Suitable volume for ophthalmic preparation is:

a. 1 ml

b. 50 micro liters

c. 10 micro liters

d. 5 ml

44 / 54

44. A patient who weighs 50 kg receives 5 mg/kg of acyclovir tid, so the patient receives………….mg/day

a. 15

b. 250

c. 500

d. 750

45 / 54

45. Most common drops:

a. Solution

b. Suspension

c. Emulsion

d. Ointments

46 / 54

46. Which of the following is responsible for buffering

a. magnesium

b. chloride

c. bicarbonates

d. potassium

47 / 54

47. All of these are anions except:

a. Phosphate.

b. Acetate.

c. Sodium.

d. Chloride.

48 / 54

48. The following is NOT characteristic of solution:

a. thermodynamically stable

b. composed of two or more component that exist in one phase

c. homogenous

d. the solvent and solute can be separated by filtration

e. solute doesn`t precipitate as time passes

49 / 54

49. A 20-kg child receives erythromycin 30 mg/kg q6h, so he receives………..mg/day

a. 180

b. 3600

c. 2400

d. 120

50 / 54

50. The most common disintergrator in compressed tablets is

a. Dextrose

b. Lactose

c. Starch

d. Potassium bitartrate

e. Powdered sucrose

51 / 54

51. Which of the following not given IV:

a. Suspension

b. Emulsion

c. Solution

d. All of the above

52 / 54

52. The appropriate PH range for ophthalmic products is

a. 2.0 to 3.0

b. 4.0 to 6.0

c. 6.0 to 8.0

d. 8.0 to 10.0

53 / 54

53. How much lidocaine for solution of 1/1000 to obtain 30 cc:

a. 0.03.

b. 0.3.

c. 30.

d. None of the above.

54 / 54

54. In a bottle, we have NaCl 500 ml, and to obtain we should add what volume of H2O to get percent dilution 3 (H2O) : 1 (NaCl)?

a. 1500 ml.

b. 2500 ml.

c. 3000 ml.

d. 1250 ml.

Your score is

The average score is 43%

Pharmaceutics Quiz 3

Get ready to test your knowledge in the field of Pharmaceutics. Please click on the right option to answer the questions. Good luck!

Please login to participate in this Quiz!

NameEmail

1 / 40

1. What does pharmacy practices is involves…

a. Review and interpretation of prescription

b. Suggestion of new prescription

c. Review and interpretation of prescription and suggestion of new prescription both

d. None

2 / 40

2. The profession in which medications are prepared, and dispensed and information regarding products provided to the public and healthcare professions is known as…

a. Pharmaceutics

b. Physiology

c. Pharmacy

d. Pharmacology

3 / 40

3. The study of the relationship between product formulation, delivery, clinical product response, and disposition is called …

a. Pharmacy

b. Physiology

c. Biochemistry

d. Pharmaceutics

4 / 40

4. It is the book containing lists of drugs approved by FDA.

a. Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR)

b. Mosby’s GenRx

c. Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy

d. Orange Book

5 / 40

5. What is the example of Drug Compendia?

a. Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR)

b. Mosby’s GenRx

c. Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR) and Mosby’s GenRx both

d. Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy

e. Orange Book

6 / 40

6. Formularies are the books containing

a. Information for the preparation of drugs

b. Lists of drugs approved for use by a particular hospital, health plan or government

c. Lists of drugs approved by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and the FDA’s evaluations of the therapeutic equivalence of different manufacturers’ preparations of approved drugs.

d. Information about the therapeutic uses of drugs.

7 / 40

7. Which of the following is actually a drug compendium? (Compendium means the list of items).

a. International Pharmacopoeia

b. City pharmacopoeia

c. Pharmacopoea Amstelredamensis

d. Martindale: The Extra Pharmacopoeia

8 / 40

8. Which Pharmacopoeia has been recognized by The Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic (FDC) Act?

a. United States Pharmacopoeia / National Formulary (USP/NF)

b. British Pharmacopoeia (BP)

c. European Pharmacopoeia

d. All of them

9 / 40

9. Pharmacopoeias are

a. Books or databases listing information about the therapeutic uses of drugs.

b. Books or databases listing drugs used in medical practice and describing their composition, preparation, use, dosages, effects, and side effects, especially one published as an official guide for pharmacists.

c. Books which not authorized by governments or by international agencies.

d. Books containing list of pharmacy items.

10 / 40

10. It is the process in which the different chemical substances are combined to produce a final drug product.

a. Prescription

b. Compounding

c. Dispensing

d. Formulation

11 / 40

11. What is the process for separating lighter particles from heavier ones using a vertically-directed stream of gas or liquid (usually upwards)?

a. Elutriation

b. Centrifugation

c. Levigation

d. Vaporization

12 / 40

12. Autoclave is a strong steel vessel that is used for which of the following processes?

a. Pasteurization

b. Sterilization

c. Precipitation

d. Heating

13 / 40

13. What is the device that rotates rapidly and uses centrifugal force to separate substances of different densities?

a. Cyclone

b. Centrifuge

c. Impeller

d. Both cyclone and centrifuge

14 / 40

14. Ionic compounds are easily soluble in

a. Polar solvents

b. Non-polar solvents

c. Both polar and non-polar solvents

15 / 40

15. Molecular weight is a

a. Constitutive property

b. Additive property

c. Colligative property

16 / 40

16. Lowering of vapor pressure is a

a. Constitutive property

b. Additive property

c. Colligative property

d. Combination of additive and colligative property

17 / 40

17. The property that depends on the sum of the corresponding properties of individual atoms or functional groups within the molecules

a. Constitutive property

b. Additive property

c. Colligative property

d. Both colligative property and additive property

18 / 40

18. The property that depends on the structural arrangement of atoms within the molecules

a. Constitutive property

b. Additive property

c. Colligative property

d. Both colligative property and additive property

19 / 40

19. The property of a solution that depends on the number of the solute particles in solution is known as

a. Constitutive property

b. Additive property

c. Colligative property

d. Both colligative property and additive property

20 / 40

20. A fixed dose of drug that follows 1 order elimination depends on:

a. dose of drug

b. dosing intervals

c. elimination Half-life

21 / 40

21. FDA Fast Track what this mean:

a. For drug that shows promising results for life-threatening disease with other drugs available can treat it

b. drug that shows promising results for life-threatening disease with NO others available can do that

c. drug that shows cost effectiveness

d. drug with side effects

22 / 40

22. When the pharmacopeia put the drug as phase 4

a. safety

b. potency

c. ndication

23 / 40

23. Pharmacy and therapeutic committee

a. storage of drug

b. adverse effect

c. expiration of drug

d. maintain of formulary of drug

24 / 40

24. Storage of narcotic prescriptions according to Saudi national regulations

a. 6 months

b. 12 months

c. 24 months

d. 36 months

25 / 40

25. 5ml of injection that conc. 0.4% calculate the amount of drug?

a. .2mg

b. 200mg

c. 2mg

d. 2000mg

e. 20mg

26 / 40

26. Amount of drug is 5 mg in 1 ml what the amount of drug in 1 tsp in microgram

a. 5

b. 25

c. 500

d. 2500

e. 25000

27 / 40

27. Ideal volume of eye solution:

a. 500micro

b. 50-250 micro

c. 10-50 micro

d. <10 micro

28 / 40

28. Purified water can not used in:

a. Ophthalmic preparation

b. IV solution

c. Oral preparation

d. Oral suspension

e. Ophthalmic preparation & IV solution both

29 / 40

29. 5ml of injection that conc. 0.4% calculate the amount of drug?

a. 0.2mg

b. 200mg

c. 2mg

d. 2000mg

30 / 40

30. Keep in cool place means:

a. in refrigerator

b. in freezing

c. at 10-20 c

d. in refrigerator and at 10-20 c both

31 / 40

31. Comparison between sterile water &water for injection:

a. pyrogen free

b. free from sod. Chloride

c. pyrogen free and free from sod. Chloride

d. Isotonic

e. free from bacteria

32 / 40

32. Light sensitive drug should be storage in:

a. Colorless glass

b. Colorless plastic

c. Amber glass

d. Amber plastic

e. Light resistant container

33 / 40

33. (GMP) mean:

a. Good Manufacturing Protocol or Good Manufacturing Practice

b. Good Manu factor Product

c. General Manufacturing Protocol

d. General Manufacturing Product

34 / 40

34. One of following NOT used to cover bitter taste:

a. Film coat

b. Enteric coat

c. Grinding of tablet

35 / 40

35. Solutions are better than solid dosage form coz:

a. Accurate dose

b. Easy to handle

c. More stable

d. Faster action

36 / 40

36. Normal water used for:

a. Eye preparption

b. Parentral preparation

c. Solution

d. Emultion

e. External preparation

37 / 40

37. 2 mg\L solution, according ppm:

a. 2 ppm

b. 0.02 ppm

c. 0.002 ppm

d. 0.0002 ppm

38 / 40

38. Ointment used for:

a. Carrier of drug

b. Emollient

c. Carrier of drug and Emollient

d. Increase absorption

e. Increase distribution

39 / 40

39. All factors affect on renal clearance except:

a. Age

b. Sex

c. Both

d. Disease state

40 / 40

40. About ophthalmic preparation as single dose which is false:

a. sterile

b. purified

c. should cotain preservative

Your score is

The average score is 55%

Time Over ....

Anatomy and Physiology MCQs 1

Anatomy and Physiology MCQs For Pharmacist Exam Part 1

In Part 1 of Anatomy and Physiology MCQs, we have included those questions which have been asked in many state or other pharmacist vacancy exams, and in this quiz, we have also explained the answers.

Please login to participate in this Quiz!

NameEmail

1 / 60

1. Antiageing hormone is_________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022

a) Thyroxine

b) Melatonin

c) Testosterone

d) Estrogen

Antiaging hormone is melatonin. Melatonin is a hormone produced in the glandula pinealis that follows a circadian light dependent rhythm of secretion

2 / 60

2. Which of the following pairs of chemotherapeutic agents is most commonlyused as maintenance in the treatment of Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)?

GPSSB Jr. Pharmacist (08.05.2022)

a) Fludarabine Cyclophosphamide

b) Vincristine, Imatinib

c) Dauroribicin, Gemcitabine

d) Mereaptopurine, Methotrexate

Mereaptopurine Methotrexate pairs of chemotherapeutic agents is most commonly used as maintenance in the treatment of Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL).

3 / 60

3. Which ion is essential for muscle contraction?

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Ca

b) Cl

c) Na

d) K

The essential muscle contraction is caused by calcium ions. These calcium ions bind to the protein complex troponin in order to remove the masking of active site on actin. This results in the exposure of the active- binding sites on the actin for myosin.

4 / 60

4. Muscle relation is completed in which phase of general anesthesia?

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Phase-II

b) Phase-IV

c) Phase-I

d) Phase-III

Stage of general anesthesia:- Before they had machines to track our vital signs during general anesthesia, doctor come up with a monitoring system to keep patients safe. They divided the system into four stage -
• Stage 1. Induction
• Stage 2. Excitement or delirium
• Stage 3. surgical Anesthesia
• Stage 4. Over dose.
State : 3. Surgical anesthesia:- At this stage surgery can takes place our eyes stop moving muscle completely relax, and we may stop breathing without the help of machines. The anesthesiogist will keep we at this stage until the procedures is over.

5 / 60

5. The middle protective covering layer of brain is____________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Pons

b) Arachnoid mater

c) Dura mater

d) Pia mater

The middle protective covering layer of brain is Arachnoid mater. There present three meninges layers that constitute the outer layer, the dura mater, a thin middle layer called the Arachnoid and the inner most layer called the pia mater.
* Dura mater give a protective shield for the brain and the spinal cord helps prevent the C.N.S. from gostling by fastening it to the skull.
* Arachnoid mater is defined as a middle meninges layer that connect the dura mater & pia, mater.
* The pia mater is composed of a rich supply of blood vessels to provide the Nervous tissue with nutrient. Pia mater usually cover the spinal cord and is made up of two layers.

6 / 60

6. The most common respiratory substrate is_________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Glycogen

b) Glucose

c) Maltose

d) Sucrose

Glucose is the most common respiratory substrate. One molecules of glucose produces 38 molecules of ATP. So its an instant energy source. It is also abundant and easily stored in the body in the form of glycogen. It is also stored in plants in the form of starch and glycoconjugates.

7 / 60

7. Carp metacarpal joint of the thumb is an example of :

GPSSB Jr. Pharmacist (08.05.2022)

a) Pivot joint

b) Ball and socked joint

c) Saddle joint

d) Hanger, joint

The carpometacarpal joint is a synovial saddle-shaped joint that serves as the articulation between the trapezium and the base of the first metacarpal the joint's primary function is to optimize the pinch function of the hand.

8 / 60

8. The term cytoplasm was coined by__________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Sachs

b) Strasburger

c) Flemming

d) Hanstein

Term cytoplasm refers to the living substance or protoplast found within a cell, including the Nucleus, Eduard strans burger created the word cytoplasm.
→ The cytoplasm is the gel- like fluid inside the cell. It is the medium for chemical reaction. It provides a plate form upon which other organelles can operate within the cell.

9 / 60

9. A digestive enzyme functional only in infants is__________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Intestinal lipase

b) Gastric lipase

c) Chymotrypsin

d) Lactose

A digestive enzyme functional only in infants in gastric lipase. Intragastric lipolysis is probably of major importance in the newborn and especially in the premature infants. Gastric lipase is essential for infant fat digestion.

10 / 60

10. What happens when the level of bilirubin in the blood increases?

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a) Cancer

b) Diabetes

c) Alzhelmer's

d) Jaundice

Jauindice is a condition in which the whites of the eyes and mucous membranes turm yellow because of a high level of bilirubin a yellow - orange bile pigment jaundice has many couses including hepatitis , gall stones and tomars . In adults jaundice usually do ent need to bet treated.
Jaundis two types -
(1) Physiological jaundice
(2) Pathaphysi ological jaundice

11 / 60

11. Agranulocytes are___________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Eosinophils

b) Basophils

c) None of these

d) Neutrophils

Agranulocytes are white blood cells that have no distinct granules in their cytoplasm. Agranulocytes orginates from the lymph nodes.
• Agranulocytes are known as mononuclear leukocytes.
• Granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils).
• Agranulocytes (lymphocytes and monocytes).

12 / 60

12. Which of the following antigens are present on the RBC in the person having blood group O?

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a) None

b) Antigen-A

c) Antigen-B

d) Both

A Blood group is a classification of blood-based on the presence and absence of antibodies and inherited antigenic substances on the surface of red blood cells. This antigen may be proteins, carbohydrates, glycoproteins or glycolipids, depending on the blood group system. Blood group O has no antigens but both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma. Blood group AB has both A and B antigens, but no antibodies.

13 / 60

13. Cytochromes are_________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) H2O acceptors

b) H2 acceptors

c) O2 acceptors

d) Electron acceptors

The role of cytochrome c is to carry electrons from one complex of integral membrane proteins of the inner mitochondrial membrane to another, cytochrome are electron acceptors.

14 / 60

14. Progestational phase of menstrual cycle is antagonized by___________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Luteinizing hormone

b) Oestrogen

c) Prolactin

d) Progesterone

Progestational phase of menstrual cycle is antagonised by Oestrogen. The menstrual cycle is governed by an interaction between reproductive hormone (L.H,F.S.H, oestradiol and progesterone) that result in growth of a follicle, ovulation [release of egg from the ovary into the fallopian tubes].

15 / 60

15. In the presence of inflammation, ________ is/ are raised.

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a) Platelets

b) Fibrinogen

c) Ceruloplasmin

d) Ferritin

Platetets are pieces of very large cells in the bone morrow called me gakargoctles. they help form blood clots to slow or stop bleeding and to help wounds heal or having platetets that don't work as they should can couse problems.

16 / 60

16. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of left sided heart failure?

GPSSB Jr. Pharmacist (08.05.2022)

a) Bilateral rales

b) Jugular venous distension

c) Hepatomegaly

d) Peripheral edema

Bilateral rales is a sign or symptom of left sided heart failure.
• Hepatomegaly is prominent in patients with chronic right-sided heart failure, but it may occur rapidly in acute heart failure.
• Peripheral edema (PE) is an accumulation of fluid in the interstitial space that occurs as the capillary filtration exceeds the limits of lymphatic drainage.

17 / 60

17. Tidal volume is equal to:

GPSSB Jr. Pharmacist (08.05.2022)

a) (Total lung capacity) – (Vital capacity)

b) (Functional residual capacity) – (Expiratory reserve volume)

c) (Residual volume) + (Expiratory reserve volume)

d) (Inspiratory capacity) – (Inspiratory reserve volume)

Tidal volume is equal to (Inspiratory capacity) – (Inspiratory reserve volume) inspiratory capacity is the total volume of air that can be inhaled after a normal expiration. includes tidal volume and inspiratory reserve volume IC = TV + 1RV.

18 / 60

18. An adult has ________ number teeth's of incisors in total.

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) 6

b) 2

c) 4

d) 8

An Adult has 8 number teeth's of incisor in total. Human teeth function to mechanically break down items of food by cutting & crushing the food material.
• Human have four types of Teeth -
• Incisors
• Canines
• Premolars
• Molars
• Human dental formula =2123/2123

19 / 60

19. Urea formation occurs in____________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Kidney

b) Liver

c) Spleen

d) Heart

Urea is formed in are body during nitrogen metabolism the hepatic cells in the liver. Urea is an excretory product and it enters into the blood, after it's formation in the liver, when blood reaches the kidney, which filters it out from the blood and hence excretes urea out through the urine.

20 / 60

20. Right-sided cardiac failure is called:

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a) Chronic cardiac failure

b) Congestive cardiac failure

c) Left ventricular failure

d) Acute cardiac failure

Congestive heart failure is a long term Condition that happens when your heart can't pump blood well enough to give our body a normal supply blood and fluids collect in our lungs and legs over time medications and other treatments.

21 / 60

21. The life span of WBC is approximately ..........

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a) Between 20 to 30 days

b) Less than 10 days

c) Between 10 to 20 days

d) Between 30 to 45 days

White blood cells, also called leukocytes or leucocytes, are the cells of the immune system that are involved in protecting the body against both infectious diseases and foreign invaders.
• The life span of the WBC is between 10 to 20 days. It is mainly responsible for the protection of the body
from diseases.
• The life span of the RBCs is 20–120 days.
• The life span of the blood platelets is 3–5 days.
Note: According to commission right answer is option (c).

22 / 60

22. β-cells of Pancreatic is lets secret ________.

GPSSB Jr. Pharmacist (08.05.2022)

a) Insulin

b) Glueagon

c) Panereatic polypeptide

d) Somatostatin

The Pancreatic beta cells are Endocrine cells the synthetize, store and release insulin the antihyperglycemic hormone that antagonizes glucagon, Growth hormone. glucocorticosteroids epinephrine and other hyperglycemic hormones, to maintain circulating glucose concentrations within a narrow physiologic range.Pancreatic polypeptide (PP) is an endogenous peptide hormone secreted by the cells, also called PP cells of the islets of langerhans of pancreas. Mostly postprandially.

23 / 60

23. Bronchial obstruction is a common symptom of:

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a) Lung cancer

b) Liver failure

c) Cancer

d) Asthma

Recurrent episodes of acute shartness of breath typically accurring at night or the early morning hours, are the cordinal manifestation of bronchial asthma, farther symptoms include cough wheezing and feeling of tightness in the chest.

24 / 60

24. Calcitonin is secreted by__________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Pancreas

b) Adrenal

c) Thyroid

d) Pituitary gland

Calcitonin is secreted by thyroid. Calcitonin is a 32 amino acid hormone secreted by the C- cells of thyroid gland.
Pituitary gland :- Its function including growth, metabolism, reproduction, lactation, water and sodium (salt) balance, labour and child birth.
Pancrease :- Pancrease creates natural juices called pancreatic enzyme to beak down food. These Juice travel through our pancrease.
Adrenal gland :- Adrenal gland produce hormone that help regulate our metabolism, immune system, blood pressure response stress and other essential function.

25 / 60

25. _______ excreted by the respiratory system.

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a) Urea

b) Faeces

c) Protein

d) Carbon dioxide

Corbon dioxide is a naturally occurring chemical compound that plays an integral role in the earth's ecosystem . It is essential for photosynthesis which all plants need to survive carbondioxide also helps regulate the temperature of the atmosphere and the plant as well. They are often referred to as green house gases because they allow sunlight to enter but do not allow it to leave thus heating the lower atmosphere. but corbon dioxide is exhaled by the respirating system.

26 / 60

26. During the embryonic development midbrain is developed from?

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a) Rhombencephalon

b) Mesencephalon

c) Telencephelon

d) Procencephelon

The middle vesicle is the "mesencephalon" which is the precursor of midbrain structures, the most anterior of these embryonic brain vesicles is called the "Prosencephalon" which is the embryonic precursor of
the forebrain, and the most posterior is the "rhombencephalon" which will become the hindbrain.

27 / 60

27. Select the correct name for cranial nerve -X

(Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist 05.02.2023)

a) Olfactory

b) Vagus

c) Optic

d) Facial

There are 12 cranial nerves in our body, each having a particular function.
• Cranial nerve 3 is the oculomotor nerve which helps the movements of the muscles of the eyes.
• The vagus nerve is verifiably referred to as the pneumogastric nerve. It is the longest cranial nerve. It is the 10th cranial nerve and interfaces with the lungs, heart, and stomach-related lot.

28 / 60

28. Heart rate of 160-180 refers to________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Adam syndrome

b) Atrial fibrillation

c) Ectopic activity

d) Atrial flutter

Inregular and fast rate of heartbeat (ranging 160-180) is termed as ectopic activity and it happens when our heart contracts (beats) too soon.

29 / 60

29. Sebaceous glands are___________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Holocrine

b) None of these

c) Apocrine

d) Mesocrine

Sebaceous glands are holocrins glands. sebaceous glands produce sebum via holocrine secretion, a largely uncharacterized mode of programmed cell death that contributes to the homeostasis and barrier function of the skin.

30 / 60

30. Persons having blood group 'A' makes ____

UP NHM Pharmacist (28.12.2022)

a) Anti-B

b) Anti-A and Anti-B

c) Anti-O

d) Anti-A

Persons having blood group 'A' makes AntiB.

• The Anti-A, Anti-B, and Anti-A,B, reagents are used in the red blood cell determination of the ABO blood group.

31 / 60

31. Which one of the following is not a function of Liver?

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Secretion of glucagon

b) Storage site for vitamins

c) Detoxification of various drugs.

d) Site for metabolism of proteins

Secretion of glucagon is not a function of Liver.
Function of Liver →
• Bile production and excretion
• Excretion of bilirubin, cholesterol hormone and drugs.
• Metabolism of fats, protein and carbohydrates.
• Enzyme Activation
• Storage of glycogen, vitamins and minerals
• Synthesis of plasma proteins, such as albumin and clotting factor.

32 / 60

32. Sphincter of oddi is present at exit of__________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Stomach

b) Urinary bladder

c) Oesophagus

d) Gall bladder

The sphincter of oddi is the muscular valve surrounding the exit of the gall bladder i,e at the exit of bile duct and pancreatic duct into the duodenum.

33 / 60

33. Longest cells in human body are____________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Nerve cells

b) Bone cells

c) Leg muscle cells

d) Heart muscle cells

Longest cells in Human body are Nerve cells are also called Neurons that are found in the Nervous system they can be up to 3 feet long.
- Nerve cells are only present in animals. Nerve cells is an excitable and specialized cell of the Nervous tissue which helps in proper functioning of the brain and coordination of other parts of the body.
- Neurons are divided into 3 Types : Sensory neurons (stimuli response) Motor response (receive signals) and interneurons (connects one neuron to Another Neuron).

34 / 60

34. The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in alveoli is..

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a) 40 mm Hg

b) 105 mm Hg

c) 160 mm Hg

d) 45 mm Hg

Partial pressure is the amount of pressure each gas in a mixture exerts. Gas will flow from one area with greater partial pressure to another with lower partial pressure. The partial pressure of carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the diffusion site) is 40 mmHg.
• The partial pressure of oxygen (O2) at alveoli is 104 mmHg.

35 / 60

35. Mitochondria are sites of_________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Photolysis

b) Starch synthesis

c) Oxidative phosphorylation

d) Phosphorylation

Oxidative phosphorylation is the final step incellular respiration, it occurs in the mitochondria. It is the principal purpose of oxygen respiration and the principal use of breathed in oxygen is to generate energy in the body.

36 / 60

36. Oogenesis is an example of___________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) DNA replication

b) Specialisation of cell

c) Meiosis

d) Mitosis

Oagenesis is an example of meiosis. Meiosisproduces sex cells or gametes, Oagenesis is a process which creates female gametes called ovum. Meiosis is a type of cell division in sexually reproducing organisms that reduces the number of cloromosomes in gametes.

37 / 60

37. Smallest bone of the body is ...............

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a) Malleus

b) Stapes

c) Incus

d) Femur

The human body consists of both long and short bones. The longest bone is the thigh bone but the smallest and the lightest bone in the human body is the stapes or stirrup found in our middle ear.
• There are three bones in the middle ear-malleus, stapes, and incus.

38 / 60

38. Which of the following cranial nerve is known as facial nerve?

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a) Cranial nerve VI

b) Cranial nerve VIII

c) Cranial nerve V

d) Cranial nerve VII

Facial nerve is the 7th cranial nerve and carries nerve fibers that control facial movement and expression. The facial nerve also carries nerves that are involved in taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue and producing tears.

39 / 60

39. All of the following are the disadvantages of diabetes, EXCEPT:

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a) Kidney damage

b) Neuropathy

c) Hypothyroid

d) Retinopathy

A condition in which the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone. Hypothyroidism deficiency of thyroid hormones can disrupt such things as heart rate body temperatures and all aspect of metabolism. Hypothyroidsm is most prevalent in older in older woman.

40 / 60

40. It is found only in muscles and this binds oxygen molecules

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a) Mitochondrion

b) Myoglobin

c) Sarcolemma

d) Myofibril

Myoglobin is a protein located primarily in the striated muscles of vertebrates MB is the geneoncoding myoglobin is humans. It encodes a single polypeptide chain with one oxygen binding site Myoglobin contains heme prosthetic group that can reversibly bind to oxygen

41 / 60

41. There are ______ isolated operable irregular bone in the vertebral column

UP NHM Pharmacist (28.12.2022)

a) 20

b) 10

c) 24

d) 15

There are 24 isolated operable irregular bone in the vertebral column. Vertebrae are the 33 individual bones that inter lock with each other to form the spinal column. The vertebrae are numbered and divided into regions-cervical. Thoracic, lumber, sacrum and coccyx.
Only the top bones are moveable, the vertebrae of sacrum and coccyx are fused. The vertebrae in each region have unique features that help them perform their main functions.

42 / 60

42. Ganglion refers to___________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Collection of cell bodies of neurons in Peripheral Nervous System.

b) Collection of axons in Central Nervous System.

c) Collection of cell bodies of neurons in Central Nervous System.

d) Collection of numerous axons in Peripheral Nervous System.

Ganglion refers to collection of cell bodies of neurons in peripheral Nervous system. A ganglion is a cluster of nerve cells found in the P.N.S. The cells that are specific to a ganglion are called ganglion cells. However the term is some time used to describe retinal ganglion cells. The main component of the ganglion a cell body called the somata and associate dendritic structure.

43 / 60

43. Residual air mostly occurs in__________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Nostrils

b) Alveoli

c) Trachea

d) Bronchus

Residual air mostly occurs in alveoli. The residual volume (RV) is the alveoli of the lungs, after respiratory. The lungs are never left completely empty, there is always some air left in the lungs after a maximum exhalation.

44 / 60

44. Bile is formed in________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Blood

b) Spleen

c) Gall bladder

d) Liver

Bile is an aqueous liquid solution produced in the liver. It consists mainly bile salts, conjugated bilirubin with some electrolytes and water.

45 / 60

45. An example of haemostatic suture is:

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a) Sterile polyester suture

b) Oxidised cellulose

c) Sterile linen suture

d) Sterile catgut

The Atlantic cod is a benthopelagic fish of the family gadidae widely consumed by human It is also commercially known as cod or codling Dry cod may be prepared as unsalted salt stack fish and as cured slot cod or clipfish.

46 / 60

46. Male sex hormone testosterone is secreted by__________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Leydig cells

b) Sertoli cells

c) Epididymis

d) Spermatogenic

Leydig cells are the source of androgenic hormone i.e testosterone in males. Leydig cells (LC) are present in the testicular interstitial tissue and their main function is to produce testosterone.

47 / 60

47. The formation of plaque inside the coronary artery due to deposition of the lipid content is known as ............

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a) Atherosclerosis

b) Embolism

c) Myocardial infarction

d) Thrombosis

Atherosclerosis is the thickening or hardening of the arteries caused by a buildup of plaque in the inner lining of an artery. Risk factors may include high cholesterol and triglyceride levels, high blood pressure smoking, diabetes, obesity, physical activity, and eating saturated fats.

48 / 60

48. The chronic inflammation of a delayed hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by:

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a) Lymphokines

b) Bradykinin

c) Glucagon

d) Histamine

Histomine - a chemical found in some of the body's calls caused many of the symtoms of allergic such as runny nose are sneezing when a person is allergic to a particular substance such as a food or dust, the Immune system mistakenly belieuss that us usually harmless substance is act orally harmful to the body

49 / 60

49. A person with O blood group can receive blood from a person having ___ blood group.

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a) A, AB

b) A

c) O

d) B

A blood type is a classification of blood-based on the presence and absence of antibodies and in hirite antigenic substances on the & surface of red blood cells. These antigens may be proteins body glycoprotins or glycolipids depending on the blood group system.

50 / 60

50. The germinal epithelium of ovary is___________

GPSSB Jr. Pharmacist (08.05.2022)

a) Not attempted

b) Simple cuboidal epithelium

c) Stratified columnar epithelium

d) Stratified cuboidal epithelium

e) Simple columnar epithelium

The ovarian surface epithelium, also called the germinal epithelium of waldeyer, or coelomic epithelium is a layer of simple squamous to cuboidal epithelial cell covering the ovary.

51 / 60

51. Red cell count is carried out by ______

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a) Haemoglobinometer

b) Sphygmomanometer

c) Haemocytometer

d) Electrogram

Red cell refers to red blood cells also known as erythrocytes which carries oxygen to the body from the lungs. A healthy person has 5–5.5 million RBCs per 3mm of blood which have lifespan of 120 days.
• Haemocytometer is a device that is used for counting red blood cells, it contains different grids and has specific area and volume to count the number of RBCs in a particular volume of blood.
• Haemoglobinometer is a device used for measuring the hemoglobin concentration of the blood.
• A sphygmomanometer is an instrument used to determine blood pressure.

52 / 60

52. Light rays entering the eye is controlled by __________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Lens

b) Iris

c) Pupil

d) Cornea

Light rays entering the eye is controlled by pupil, lets into our eyes as the muscles of our iris change its shape. The lens in our eye focuses light then goes to the back of our eye and hits our retina.

53 / 60

53. Nuclear envelope reappears at__________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Telophase

b) Metaphase

c) Anaphase

d) Cytokinesis

Nuclear envelope reappears at telophase. Telophase- During this phase, chromosomes disappears (become chromatin), nuclear membrane reforms, nucleoli reappears,. Telophase is the fifth and finalphase of mitosis, the process that separates the duplicated genetic material carried in the nucleus of a parent cell into two identical daughter cells.

54 / 60

54. White matter is external and grey matter is internal in _________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Cerebellum & Medulla oblongata

b) Medulla oblongata

c) Cerebellum

d) Cerebrum

The medulla oblongata consists of both cells and fibres, which are similarly to those in the spinal cord, the cells or grey matter being on the inside and the fibres of white matter on the outside. It lies at the base of the skull just in front o the foramen magnum and links the pons and spinal cord.

55 / 60

55. Nose, pharynx, windpipe, trachia and lungs are located in _____

UP NHM Pharmacist (28.12.2022)

a) Cardiovascular system

b) Renal system

c) Respiratory system

d) Excretory system

The respiratory system starts at the nose and mouth and continues through the airways and the lungs.

• The excretory system is a vital biological system that removes excess and waste, products from the body to maintain homeostasis.
• Cardiovascular system, which is made up of our heart and blood vessels is a crucial part of our body.

56 / 60

56. Chemoreceptor trigger zone is an area of the_____ and plays role in stimulating _______.

GPSSB Jr. Pharmacist (08.05.2022)

a) Cerebrum, Emesis

b) Cerebrum, Respiration

c) Medulla Oblongata, Emesis

d) Medulla Oblongata, Respiration

Chemoreceptor trigger zone is an area of the Medulla oblongata and plays role in stimulating emesis.

57 / 60

57. The following organs are part of male reproductive system except;

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a) Vas deferen

b) Urethra

c) Ureter

d) Testis

The ureters are tubular structures approximately 20–23 cm in adults that pass from the pelvis of each kidney into the bladder. Form the renal pelvis they descend on top of the psoas major muscle to reach the brim of the pelvis.

58 / 60

58. The elimination of insoluble calcium phosphate takes place by____________

HPSSC Pharmacist (14.05.2022)

a) Skin

b) Kidney

c) Large intestine

d) Liver

The calcium ions binds to the phosphates and are present in the dietary food. Sometimes, calcium phosphate are consumed as an antacid. The calcium phosphate is a salt which is insoluble in water. The calcium ions are absorbed by the cells of the intestine as per requirement. The excess of calcium and phosphate ions are excreted by the large intestine in the form of paeces.

59 / 60

59. Which is not a true for Insulin?

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) It is inactivated by digestive enzymes

b) It combines with zinc to lose activity

c) It is a amphoteric protein

d) It is soluble in water

Insulin is a small protein consisting 51 amino acids in it's molecule. It works as a hormone and produced in the pancreas and added to the blood after meals when sugar levels are high it controls the sugar level in blood by allowing cells to absorb glucose. Insulin do not combine with zinc instead in the presence of zinc improves the peripheral insulin senstivity.

60 / 60

60. Glomerular filtrate is equal to:

GPSSB Jr. Pharmacist (08.05.2022)

a) Plasma

b) Serum + Plasma Proteins

c) Blood – (RBCs – WBCs)

d) Blood – (Blood Cells + Plasma Proteins)

Glomerular filtrate is equal to blood (Blood cells + Plasma Proteins).

Your score is

The average score is 68%

Anatomy and Physiology MCQs 2

Anatomy and Physiology Online Quiz For Pharmacist Exam Part 2

Get ready to test your knowledge in the field of Anatomy and Physiology. Please click on the right option to answer the questions. Good luck!

Please login to participate in this Quiz!

NameEmail

1 / 60

1. In Central nervous system, the nerves that arise from cerebrum and brain stem are called as_______

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual (04.08.2022)

a) Spinal nerves

b) Cranial nerves

c) Frontal nerves

d) Temporal nerves

In central nervous system, the nerves that arise from cerebrum and brain stem are called as cranial nerves. The cranial nerves are a set of 12 paired nerves in the back of our brain cranial nerves send electrical signal to our brain. Face, neck and torso. Our cranial nerves help us taste smell, hear and fell sensations. These also help us to make facial expressions, blink our eyes and move our tongue.

2 / 60

2. Choose the correct statement about bronchus.

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) The right bronchus is more vetical

b) The left bronchus divides into two

c) The left bronchus is shorter

d) The right bronchus is wider

Bronchi is a wind pipe that distribute the air within our lungs. The key difference between right and left bronchus is that the right bronchus is shorter and wider while the left bronchus is longer and narrower.
Note: According to the commission right answer is (b).

3 / 60

3. Which of the following is a plasma kinin?

Gujarat VMC Pharmacist (28.03.2021)

a) Kallidin

b) Serotonin

c) Histamine

d) Rennin

Kallidin is a bioactive kinin formed in response to injury from kininogen precursors through the action of kallikreins .
• The activation of plasma kallikrein - kinin leads to the activation of several sequential effector proenzymes resulting in the induction of genes and activation of biomolecules involved in the molecular mechanisms of vasodilation , blood coagulation and fibrinolysis.

4 / 60

4. The powerhouse of the cell is :

Gujarat VMC Pharmacist (28.03.2021)

a) Nucleus

b) Ribosomes

c) Golgi Bodies

d) Mitochondria

Mitochondria is known as the "powerhouse of the cell"
• It is a double membrane bound organelle found in most eukaryotic organisms.
• They play a major role in breaking down nutrients and generating energy rich molecules for the cell. Many of the biochemical reactions involved in cellular respiration take place within the mitochondria.
• It was discovered by a German pathologist named Richard Altman in year 1890 .

5 / 60

5. Which vein drain abdomen?

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) Superior vena cava

b) Inferior vena cava

c) Coronary sinus

d) None of these

The inferior vena cava (IVC) drains venous blood from the lower trunk, abdomen, pelvis and lower limbs to the right artrium of the heart .The inferior vena cava is formed by the confluence of two common iliac veins at L-5 vertebral level.

6 / 60

6. In healthy adult, glomercular filtration rate is_______

UP NHM Pharmacist (28.12.2022)

a) 180 ml/min

b) 80 ml/min

c) 125 ml/min

d) 50 ml/min

In a healthy person the GFR is about 125 ml/min, which makes 180 liters per day.

7 / 60

7. Thromboxane is mainly synthesized by_______

VSSC Pharmacist-A (07.11.2021)

a) Spleen

b) Platelets

c) Endothelium

d) Lungs

Thromboxane is mainly synthesized by platelets. Thromboxanes, a substance produced by platelets, lead to occlusion of blood vessel by fueling blood clots inside the vascular system, this has been implicated in many cardiovascular conditions ranging from heart attack to stroke.

8 / 60

8. Arch of aorta lies at what vertebral level?

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual (04.08.2022)

a) T2

b) T4

c) T5

d) T6

The initial portion of the aorta ascending behind the sternum is referred to as the ascending aorta extends approximately to the level of the T4 vertebral body. From this point, it is known as the aortic arch.

9 / 60

9. Melatonin is secreted by__________

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual (04.08.2022)

a) Adrenal cortex

b) Hypothalamus

c) Pineal gland

d) Melanocytes

Melatoninn is a hormone secreted by the enigmatic pineal gland in response to darkness, hence named as the hormone of darkness.
• The pineal gland, conarium or epiphysis cerebri, is a small endocrine gland in the brain of most vertebrates.
• Melatonin found in plants and animals. It is primarily known in animals as a hormone.

10 / 60

10. The spleen is located under the ribcage and above the stomach in the_____ of the abdomen.

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual (04.08.2022)

a) Right lower quadrant

b) Left upper quadrant

c) Left lower quadrant

d) Right upper quadrant

The spleen is part of our lymphatic system. The spleen is a fist-sized organ found in the upper left side of our abdomen, next to our stomach and behind our left ribs. We can survive without it but it is an important part of our immune system.

11 / 60

11. Lymphocytes accounts for what percent of leucocytes in normal adults?

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) 15

b) 30

c) 90

d) 60

Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that develop in the bone marrow. A normal range of lymphocytes percentage is 18-45% of total leucocytes in normal adults.

12 / 60

12. Cere brosides are ____

UP NHM Pharmacist (28.12.2022)

a) Phospholipids

b) Drived lipids

c) Sulpholipids

d) Glycolipids

Cerebrosides the simplest neutral glycolipids/ glycosphingolipids have a single sugar that is linked to ceramide.

13 / 60

13. Largest organ is the body is_________

VSSC Pharmacist-A (07.11.2021)

a) Liver

b) Bone

c) Lungs

d) Skin

Largest organ is the body is skin. It can seem counterintuitive since many of our other organs are unseen. The skin, made up of three of the layers the Epidermis the Dermis and hypodermis is an external organ.

14 / 60

14. Which of the following type of food poisoning is caused by staphylococcus aureus?

UP NHM Pharmacist (28.12.2022)

a) Peptic ulceration

b) Acute gastritis

c) Autoimmune chronic gastritis

d) Helicobacter associated

Acute gastritis Type of food poisoning is caused by staphylococcus aureus. Staph food poisoning is a gastrointestinal illness caused by eating foods contaminated with toxins produced by the bacterium staphylococcus aureus staph bacteria.

15 / 60

15. Erythropoietin is produced by____________

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual (04.08.2022)

a) Bone marrow

b) Kidney

c) Lungs

d) Liver

Erythropoietin (EPO) is a glycoprotein hormone, naturally produced by the peritubular cells of the kidney, that stimulates red blood cells production. Renal cortex peritubular cells produce most EPO in the human body. PO2 directly regulates EPO production. The lower the PO2. the greater the production of EPO.

16 / 60

16. All the following causes hyperglycemia except_______

VSSC Pharmacist-A (07.11.2021)

a) Glucagon

b) Diazoxide

c) Streptozotocin

d) Miglitol

Miglitol is an oral alpha-gluconsidase inhibitor used to improve glycemic control by delaying the digestion of carbohydrate. Miglitol inhibits the breakdown complexes carbohydrate in to glucose. Miglitol is used to treat high blood sugar levels that are caused by type 2 diabetes.

17 / 60

17. An organ that is not a component of the urinary system, is ______

UP NHM Pharmacist (28.12.2022)

a) Urinary bladder

b) Urethra

c) Ureter

d) Adrenal gland

An organ or structure that is not a component of the urinary system is the Adrenal gland. The urinary system consists of ureters, kidneys, nephrons, urinary bladder, and urethra.
• The ureter is a small tube, or duct that connects the bladder and kidneys. urine passes through the ureter from the kidneys to the bladder, the urethra is the tubular path that connects the bladder to the body's exterior, allowing urine to exit the body.

18 / 60

18. Angiology refers to___________

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) Articular system

b) Integumentary system

c) Skeletal system

d) Circulatory system

Angiology deals with circulatory system of our body. It is the branch of science which deals with the study of blood vessels, under this branch of medical science diagnosis and treatment of diseases associated with the circulatory system and the lymphatic system.

19 / 60

19. Function of Golgi apparatus is_________

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) Synthesis of proteins

b) Breakdown of toxic substance

c) Synthesis of ribosomes

d) Transport of proteins

The cell organelle, which is known as golgi body or golgi- apparatus, helps in transporting, modifying and packaging proteins and lipids into vesicles for delivery to the targeted destinations Golgi body is membrane-bound organelle of eukaryotic cell,

20 / 60

20. Which is used in cheese manufacturing as a substitute of rennin?

Kerala PSC Pharmacist Gr.II (04.01.2021)

a) Collagenase

b) Urokinase

c) Pepsin

d) Papain

Pepsin is used in cheese manufacturing as substitute of rennin. The key & characteristics step in the manufacture of rennet coagulated cheeses is the coagulation of milk through the limited proteolytic action certain proteinases, called rennnets. Several proteinases can coagulate milk but only a few are suitable for cheese production. This led to a search for rennet substitute, four of which are commercially successful: bovine, pepsin and proteinases from the fungi R. meihei, R. pusillus and C. parasitic. All successful rennet substitutes are aspartyl (acid) proteinases.

21 / 60

21. Which among the following is a light receptor protein synthesized by vitamin A for night vision?

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual (04.08.2022)

a) Chromoprotein

b) Rhodopsin

c) Globul in

d) Lipoprotein

Vitamin A is a precursor of rhodopsin, the photo pigment found in rods within retina of our eye that helps us to see at night. Without vitamin A, "night blindness' occurs. vitamin A is a fat soluble vitamin and found in many supplements and foods. Rhodopsin also known as visual purple, is a protein encoded by the RHO gene and a G-protein-coupled receptor.

22 / 60

22. Identify the method of metabolism of salicylates in our body.

Kerala PSC Pharmacist Gr.II (04.01.2021)

a) Oxidation

b) Hydroxylation

c) Reduction

d) Conjugation with glucuronic acid

metabolism of salicylates occurs through glucuronidation and by conjugation to salcyluric acid. Liver metabolizes salicylates by first order elimination, and the inactive metabolites are then excreted in the urine.

23 / 60

23. The condensation of chromation and shrinkage of the nucleus leading to cell death is termed as:

Gujarat VMC Pharmacist (28.03.2021)

a) Karyolysis

b) Pyknosis

c) Autophagy

d) Karyorrhexis

Pyknosis is the process of nuclear shrinkage. It is an irreversible condition of chromatin in the nucleus of a cell wall undergoing necrosis or apoptosis.
• By following the progression of necrotic pyknosis, we surprisingly observed a transient state of chromatin detachment from the nuclear envelop followed by the nuclear envelope completely collapsing into chromatin.

24 / 60

24. Ventricles of brain are lined by___________

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual (04.08.2022)

a) Podocytes

b) Ependymocytes

c) Astrocytes

d) Oligodendrocytes

Ependymocytes are one of the three types of ependymal cells which in turn are one of the four principles types of glial cells, and are found lining ventricular system of the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord.

• Astrpcutes are specialized glial cells that outnumber neurons by over fivefold, they contiguously tile the entire CNS and exert many essential complex functions in the healthy CNS.
• Oligodenrocytes - These are the myelinating cells of CNS.
• Podocytes→ podocytes are terminally differentiated cells of the kidney glomerulus that are essential for the integrity of the kidney filter.

25 / 60

25. Total number of phalanges in upper limb is________

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) 20

b) 14

c) 10

d) 28

The bones in the fingers and toes were first called phalanges by Greek philosopher Aristotle because they are arranged in ranks suggesting the military formation Each of human hand has 14 phalanges and therefore both hands of upper limb have a total of 28 phalanges.

26 / 60

26. How many laminae are present in the grey matter of spinal cord?

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual (04.08.2022)

a) 10/10

b) 9/9

c) 8/8

d) 7/7

10 (1–x) laminae are present in the grey matter of spinal cord. Structure of brain & spinal cord are arranged in two layers namely grey matter & white matter. Grey matter is formed by neuron cell bodies (soma). Grey matter present in outer surface of cerebrum & cerebellum.
• In brain stem grey matter is located in groups of neurons called nuclei, embedded with white matter tracts. (Ex→ Basal ganglia)
• Grey matter is the outer parts of the brain & inner parts of the spinal cord but white matter is present in inner part of brain & outer part of spinal cord.

27 / 60

27. Main muscle of shoulder is_________

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) Suprasinatus

b) Gluteus

c) Trapezius

d) Deltoid

Deltoid muscles are the main muscles of our shoulder has ball-and -socked joint that connects the arm to the trunk of are body. Deltoid muscles help to move our arms in different directions. These muscles protect and stabilize the shoulder joint,

28 / 60

28. Endothelium dependent relaxing factor of blood.

VSSC Pharmacist-A (07.11.2021)

a) Nitric oxide

b) Nor adrenaline

c) Acetyl Choline

d) None of the above

Endothelium dependent relaxing factor of blood Nitric oxide. Endothelium dependent relaxation occurs in resistance vessels as well as in larger arteries and is generally more pronounced in arteries platetet aggregation and adhesion to the blood vessel wall.

29 / 60

29. Which of the following hormones inhibits the secretion of insulin, glucagon and growth hormone?

Gujarat VMC Pharmacist (28.03.2021)

a) Melatonin

b) Serotonin

c) Somatostatin

d) thyroxin

The hypothalamus secretes somatostatin , an inhibitory hormone.
• Somatostatin, commonly known as growth inhibiting hormone, prevents the pituitary gland from secreting GH.
• It has been shown to suppress GI, endocrine, exocrine, pancreatic and pituitary secretions, as well as neurotransmission and memory formation in the CNS.

30 / 60

30. Life span of W.B.C. in human is_______

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) 7 days

b) None of these

c) 100 days

d) 50 days

White blood cells (WBCs) protect the body from infections and foreign particles WBCs are irregular and colorless cells with a nucleus, their life span is very short and ranges from few hours to maximum 20 days only.

31 / 60

31. An example of flat bone___________

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a) Sternum

b) Kneecap

c) Skull bone

d) Carpals

The sternum is a partially T. Shaped vertical bone that forms the anterior portion of the chest wall centrally. The sternum of the sternum is divided anatomically into three segments.
The sternum connects the ribs via the costal cartilages forming the anterior rib cage.

32 / 60

32. Which one of the following statement is true for-cancer cells:

AMC Pharmacist (15.05.2022)

a) Cancer cells are highly sensitive to growth inhibitory signals

b) Cancer cells produce Oncoproteins in the absence of growth factors or external stimuli

c) Oncoproteins produced by cancer cells act a neighboring cells

d) Cancer cells require stimulation by growth factors (c)

Cancer cells:-
• Grow in the absence of signals telling them to grow.
• Ignore signals that normally tell cell to stop dividing or to die invade into nearby areas and spread to other areas of the body.
• Hide from the immune system, that normally eliminates damaged or abnormal cells.
• Trick the immune system into helping cancer cells stay a Live and grow.
• Mutations destroy telomerase intibitor.

33 / 60

33. Nissl granules occur in_________

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) Bone cells

b) Chondrocytes

c) Nerve cells

d) Mast cells

Nissl's granules are the large granular body found in neurons (or- nerve cells). These granules are rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) with rosettes of free rebosomes and are the sites of protein synthesis.

34 / 60

34. Indicate muscles, which are more resistant to block recover more arapidly______

Gujarat VMC Pharmacist (28.03.2021)

a) Leg

b) Hand

c) Neck

d) Diaphragm

The diaphragm is the most highly resistant muscle to NMBAs as well as the first to recover but the occurrence of its dysfunction has been implicated in postoperative respiratory failure, especially when mechanical ventilation is prolonged. Therefore studying diaphragmatic function in a preoperative context is extremely important.

35 / 60

35. In NREM Sleep, Which part of brain is not involved?

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual (04.08.2022)

a) Hypothalamus

b) Basal forebrain

c) Thalamus

d) Dorsal raphe nucleus

IN NREM Sleep Dorsal raphe nucleus in not involved.
• NREM sleep involves a reduce heart rate, lower blood

• The dorsal raphe nucleus is located on the midline of the brainstem and in one of raphe nucleus. It has rostral and caudal subdivisions. The dorsal raphe in the largest serotonergic nucleus and provides a substantial proportion of the serotonin inneruation to the forebrain.

36 / 60

36. Which of the following enzymes is repressed by the insulin hormone?

UP NHM Pharmacist (28.12.2022)

a) Hexokinase

b) Glycogen synthase

c) Pyruvate kinase

d) Glycogen veductase

The Pyruvate kinase exerts glucokinaseindependent effects on insulin secretion pathways in Bcells. An exciting finding is that, by stealing the ADP required for oxphos, Pyruvate Kinase toggles mitochondria between ATP generation and PFP biosynthesis.

37 / 60

37. The proximal convoluted tubules lies in_________

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) Renal pelvis

b) Renal cortex

c) Renal sinus

d) Renal medulla

The proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) is located in the renal cortex. PCT is a segment of the renal tubule responsible for the reabsorption and secretion of various solutes and water.

38 / 60

38. Which one of the following is not a function of lymphatic system?

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) Return tissue fluid to blood stream

b) Transport of fats

c) Protection of body from foreign material

d) Transport of dietary protein

Lymphatic system is the part of are body's immune system, it helps in managing the fluid levels in the body, react to bacteria deals with cancer cells , lymphatic system also absorbs some of the fats in our diet from the intestine but not proteins, therefore transport of dietary protein is not the function of lymphatic system.

39 / 60

39. Human being have____ number of Parathyroid glands.

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) 4

b) 6

c) 2

d) 8

There are two pairs i.e 4 parathyroid glands found in human body, these are oval shaped glands located next to the two thyroid gland lobes in the neck, Each of these gland is usually about the size of a pea. The parathyroid glands produce a hormone that regulates the amount of calcium in the blood.

40 / 60

40. The cardiovascular disease associated with the disorder of heart rate or rhythm is called:

Gujarat VMC Pharmacist (28.03.2021)

a) Angina pectoris

b) Myocardial infarction

c) Arrhythmia

d) Ischemia

A heart arrhythmia is an irregular heartbeat. Heart rhythm problems occur when the electrical signals that coordinate the hearts beats don't work properly. The faulty signaling causes the heart to beat too fast or irregularly.
• In general , heart arrhythmias are grouped by the speed of the heart rate, for example -
• Tachycardia is a fast heart. The resting heart rate is greater than 100 beats a minute.
• Bradycardia is a slow heartbeat. The resting heart rate is less than 60 beats a minute.

41 / 60

41. Plasma has water to the extent of__________

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) 70%

b) 90%

c) 80%

d) 60%

Solid part of blood is composed of red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs) and platelets. The fluid (or liquid) part of blood is known as plasma and is a straw cloloured , viscous fluid and containing 90 to 92% of water and 6 to 8% proteins.

42 / 60

42. Which of the following lack blood Supply?

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) None of these

b) Connective tissue

c) Bone

d) Cartilage

Cartilage is a strong flexible connective tissue that protects our joints and bones. It is a firm tissue but is soften and much more flexible than bone. Cartilage lacks blood supply as it has no blood vessels nerves, of lymphatics.

43 / 60

43. Active immunity may be gained by_______

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) Vaccines

b) Natural infection

c) Toxoids

d) All of these

Active immunity results when exposure to a disease organism triggers the immune system to produce antibodies to that disease. Active immunity may be acquired by natural infection, vaccination or by applying toxoids to the immune system.

44 / 60

44. A large number of cells present in nervous system, is called _____ Or Which of the following is a part of the nervous system?

UP NHM Pharmacist (28.12.2022)
BSSC Pharmacist (2018

a) Neuroglia

b) Nerve impulses

c) Neurons

d) Dendrites

The nervous system is made up of neurons, specialized cells that can receive and transmit chemical or electrical signals and glia cells that provide support functions for the neurons by playing an information processing role that is complementary to neurons.

45 / 60

45. Which of the following is a catecholamine___________

Gujarat VMC Pharmacist (28.03.2021)

a) Melanine

b) Dopamine

c) Thyroxine

d) Tyramine

Dopamine, adrenaline and noradrenalin are all catecholamine's.
• Catecholamine's are hormones that the brain, nerve tissue, and adrenal glands produce.
• The body releases catecholamine's in response to emotional or physical stress.
• Catecholamine's are responsible for the body's "fight or flight" response.

46 / 60

46. mRNA is synthesized in the nucleus as :

Gujarat VMC Pharmacist (28.03.2021)

a) scRNA

b) snRNA

c) hnRNA

d) tmRNA

hn RAN stands for heterogenous nuclear RNA. It refers to the large pre - mRNAs of various nucleotide sequences II and processed in the nucleus to become cytoplasmic mRNAs .
• The hn RNA that is associated with proteins from the heterogenous nuclear ribonucleoprotein ( hn RNP)

47 / 60

47. Which of the following isotope is used to study the functioning of thyroid gland?

GMC Pharmacist (08.08.2021)

a) Iodine 135

b) Iodine 127

c) Iodine 123

d) Iodine 133

Iodine-123 (or I-123) is a radio-isotope of iodine used for evaluation of the thyroid function and morphology. It is used in nuclear medicine for the diagnostic study of thyroid disease.

48 / 60

48. How many pairs of intercostals muscles are present?

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) 14

b) 11

c) 12

d) 13

There are 11 pairs of intercostal muscles present is intercostal spaces, these are many different groups of muscles that run between the ribs and help form and move the chest wall. There are 3 groups: external, internal and innermost intercostal muscles.

loss of muscle tone occurs in stage - III. Muscle tone is the amount of tension (or resistance to movement) in muscles. Our muscle tone help us to hold our bodies upright when we are sitting and standing.

49 / 60

49. Loss of muscle tone occurs in _____ stage.

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) Stage III

b) Stage II

c) Stage I

d) Stage IV

50 / 60

50. Human Serum Albumin has a molecular weight of_________

AMC Pharmacist (15.05.2022)

a) 65000

b) 34000

c) 59000

d) 44000

The human serum albumin is the most abundant protein in the human body. The molecular weight of human serum albumin is 65,000 Dalton.

51 / 60

51. Which of the following will result in very closest value to the Glomerular Filteration Rate (GFR)?

AMC Pharmacist (15.05.2022)

a) Creatinine Clearance

b) Measure of Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)

c) Insulin Clearance

d) Albumin Clearance

The creatinie clearance (crcl) rate approximates the calculation of Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) since the glomerulus freely filters creatinine. However it is also secreted by the per tubular capillaries causing crcl to overestimate the GFR by approximately 10% to 20%

52 / 60

52. The incorrect statement about heart is__________

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) Heart had four chambers

b) Heart is located in thoracic cavity

c) Heart has three valves

d) Heart has three layers

Human heart is a fist-sized organ that contains form main sections (chambers) mode of muscle. There are four valve in the human heart : aortic valves, mitral valve, tricuspid valve, and pulmonary valve. Heart walls have three layers: Endocardium (inner layer), myocardium (muscular middle layer) and third Epicardium (protective outer layer), our heart is located in the thoracic cavity (a space in the chest that contains other organs as lungs esophagus, trachea and thymus).

53 / 60

53. Sarcolemma refers to_______

HPSSC Pharmacist (12.12.2020)

a) Membrane of skeletal muscle

b) Mitochondria of skeletal muscle

c) Endoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle

d) Cytoplasm of skeletal muscle

The plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle fiber is called sarcolemma. It consists of a lipid bilayer and a thin outer coat of polysaccharide material (glycocalyx) that contacts the basement membrane.

Ans. (c): Estrogens are a group of hormones that play an important role in the normal sexual and Reproductiove development in female.
• In addition to regulation the menstrual cycle, estrogen affects the reproductive tract, the urinary tract, the heart and blood vessels, breasts , skin pelvic muscle etc.
• Some hereditary and other conditions can lead to high levels of estrogen in male which can results in :
• Infertility
• Erectile dysfunction.
• Longer breasts, known as gynecomastia.

54 / 60

54. Which of the following is a female sex hormone?

Gujarat VMC Pharmacist (28.03.2021)

a) Estrogen

b) Stilbesterol

c) Testisteribe

d) Benzesterol

55 / 60

55. Which veins drain directly into inferior vena cava?

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual (04.08.2022)

a) Superior mesentric vein

b) Hepatic vein

c) Inferior mesentric vein

d) Splenic vein

The hepatic vein carried the blood away from the inferior vena cava, which leads to the right atrium, one
of the four chambers of the heart.
• They are usually there- RHV, MHV and LHV.
• Vena cava is the largest vein in the body.

56 / 60

56. Which of the following releases renin?

GMC Pharmacist (08.08.2021)

a) Cells of Justa-medullary apparatus

b) Cells of Juxta-glomerular apparatus

c) Crypts of Lieberkuhn

d) Gastric glands of infants

The juxt-aglomerular cells are stimulated to secrete renin by three mechanism, all of which are activated in response to decreased extracellular fluid volume. Macula densa cells stimulate Juxtaglomerular cells to release renin when they detect a drop in sodium concentration in the tubular fluid.

57 / 60

57. The term coronary artery disease is used to designate all of the following conditions, EXCEPT____

Kerala PSC Pharmacist Gr.III (22.12.2021)

a) Sudden cardiac death

b) Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)

c) Myocardial Infraction

d) Angina Pectoris

Heart failure, also known as congestive heart failure is a condition that develops when your heart doesn’t pump enough blood for our body's needs this can happen if our heart can fill up with enough blood. It can also happen when our heart is too weak to pump properly.
→ Angina pectoris is the medical term for chest pain or discomfort due to coronary heart disease.
→ sudden cardiac death (SCD) is by unexpected and cardiac in nature.

58 / 60

58. Creatinine clearance is used as a measurement of___________

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual (04.08.2022)

a) Active renal secretion

b) Glomerular Filtration Rate

c) Passive renal absorption

d) Renal excretion rate

Creatinine clearance is used as a measurement of Glomerular Filtration Rate(GFR). The creatinine clearance test helps provide information about how well the kidneys are working. The test compares the creatinine level in urine with the creatinine level in blood. This test requires both a urine sample and blood sample.

59 / 60

59. Inulin clearance is a measure of_______________

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual (04.08.2022)

a) Renal plasma flow

b) Tubular Secretion flow

c) Glomerular filtration rate

d) Tubular reabsorption rate

Inulin clearance is measure of Glomerular filtration rate. Glomerular filtration is the process that takes place in the kidney. It is a process that involves the filtration of blood and the removal of waste takes place.
GFR=Pinulin/Uinulin(Vu)

Where,
Uinulin = Concentration of inulin in the urine.
Pinulm = Concentration of inulin in plasma.
Vu = Urine flow rate.

60 / 60

60. Bile is produced by_________

VSSC Pharmacist-A (07.11.2021)

a) Pancreas

b) Gallbladder

c) Liver

d) Intestine

Bile is a physiological aqueous solution product and secreted by the liver. It consists mainly of bile salts phospholipids, cholesterol, conjugate billirubin electrolytes and water bile travels through the liver in series of ducts. Eventually exiting through the common hepatic duct.

Your score is

The average score is 29%

Pharmaceutics Quiz 1

Pharmaceutics Online Quiz For Pharmacist Exam Part 1

Get ready to test your knowledge in the field of Pharmaceutics. Please click on the right option to answer the questions. Good luck!

Please login to participate in this Quiz!

NameEmail

1 / 60

1. Which type of drug information resources do indexing and abstracting services come under?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Primary

b) Tertiary

c) Secondary

d) Quaternary

Secondary sources of drug information refer to indexing and abstracting systems that organize and provide easy retrieval of primary resources drug information sources have been traditionally classified in three categories primary, secondary and tertiary. Primary sources of drug information include unpublished studies. Tertiary sources of drug information summarize data from the primary literature and they include reference books, drug compendia and essential drugs list etc.

2 / 60

2. If bacteria are present in a hypotonic medium, what will happen to the bacterial cells?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Shrinkage and bursting

b) Shrinkage and collapsing

c) Swelling and bursting

d) Swelling and collapsing

When a bacteria get into a hypotonic medium, the bacterial cell starts swelling and expand until it burst finally and this kind of cell bursting is known as cytolysis.

3 / 60

3. The___ contains specific directions for th pharmacist on how to compound the medication.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Subscription

b) Superscription

c) Inscription

d) Signature

The subscription contains specific directions for the pharmacist on how to compound the medication. It contains instructions for the pharmacist on how to produce a dose, this means that it is a section of prescription that specifies the number of dosage units and amount to be administered.

4 / 60

4. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the coding system for materials?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) It facilitates quick identification.

b) It eliminates the chances of duplication of items.

c) It helps identify spurious drugs.

d) It assists in keeping records.

Codification is the process of assigning a number or symbol to each store item, along with a name, in order to make it easy and convenient to identify. It cannot yet eliminate the chances of duplication of items because a duplicate item can easily be placed with a same code given to original item.

5 / 60

5. The following are sterile dosage forms except;

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a) Ophthalmic

b) None of these

c) Parenteral

d) Elixirs

6 / 60

6. Empty capsule has a moisture content in the range of________

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a) 14%-15%

b) 40%-50%

c) 50%-70%

d) 30%-45%

7 / 60

7. Which of the following mediums is used for detection of both aerobes and anaerobes?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Liver broth

b) Cooked meat medium

c) Peptone broth

d) Fluid thioglycollalte medium

Fluid thioglycollate medium is the best way to determine whether bacteria are aerobic or anaerobic, i.e. when are grow these bacteria in a test tube filled with thioglycollate nutrient broth, it will be observed that anaerobic bacteria will grow at the bottom of the test tube i.e. away from oxygen, on the other hand aerobic bacteria will grow at the top of the test tube, nearest to the oxygen.

8 / 60

8. The supplement for India Pharmacopoeia in 2000 was introduced to include which of the following?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Vaccines

b) Liposomal products

c) Veterinary Products

d) Herbal drugs

9 / 60

9. In ABC analyses, the A items are:

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) l%-2% of items and 90%-95% of the expenditures

b) 10%-20% of items and 90o/o-95% of the expenditures

c) 1%-2% of items and 70%-80% of the expenclitures

d) l0%-20% of items and 70%-80% of the expenditures.

In ABC analysis, the A items are 10% - 20% of items and 70% - 80% of their expenditure. This means that a items comprise a relatively small number of items but have a relatively high consumption.

10 / 60

10. In a prescription, Rx is an abbreviation of the Latin word 'Recipe', meaning __.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) To take

b) To receive

c) To provide

d) To observe

11 / 60

11. In cyclonic separator the mixture is passed through_________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Bottom inlet at the conical base of cylinder

b) Central inlet at the top of cylinder

c) Tangential inlet in the cylinder

d) All of these

12 / 60

12. Which of the following is an absorbed type of suture material?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Linen

b) Silk

c) Brocafil

d) Horse hair

13 / 60

13. Which category of ABC analysis consists of approximately 70% of expenditure and 10% of drugs?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) C

b) A

c) D

d) B

In the ABC analysis, 'A' items are those goods or drugs having the highest annual consumption value approximately 70 to 80% but also they are relatively small (about 10 to 20%) in numbers.

14 / 60

14. The standard for Insulin was introduced in the USP in the year:

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) 1949

b) 1938

c) 1941

d) 1937

15 / 60

15. Signatura part of prescription contain__________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Patient information

b) Direction for patient

c) Renewal instruction

d) Direction to dispenser

16 / 60

16. Which is not an evaluation parameter test for the parenterals?

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Leaker test

b) Sterility test

c) Tonicity test

d) Pyrogen test

17 / 60

17. Methyl paraben or propyl paraben may be used in the preparation of ointment as:

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) A humectant

b) A preservative

c) An emulsifier

d) A chelating agent

In the preparation of an ointment and in other pharmaceutical applications and in cosmetic industries, parabens (methyl paraben, propyl paraben) are widely used as preservatives. These compounds and their salts are used mainly for their antifungal and antibacterial properties.

18 / 60

18. Fluid thioglycolate media is used for the detection of:

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Aerobes and anaerobes

b) Aerobes

c) Aerobic bacteria and lower fungi

d) Anaerobes

Fluid thioglycolate media is used for the detection of both aerobes and anaerobes. In the fluid thioglycolate solution it has been found that aerobes grow at upper surface as they requires oxygen and on the other hand anaerobes grow at the bottom of the solution because they can grow without oxygen.

19 / 60

19. What is the dose for a 50 lb child if the average adult dose is 20 mg?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) 6.6

b) 6.2

c) 6.9

d) 6.1

Dose calculation for a child if his weight in pounds (lb) is known, can be done by Clark's rule
Child's dose = Body weight (lb)/150 X adult dose
= 50/150 x 20
= 1000/150
= 6.6 mg

20 / 60

20. A transparent or translucent semisolid preparation for external use is _______

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Jellies

b) Cream

c) Paste

d) Lotion

21 / 60

21. Meta filter has following advantages except_________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) It has considerable strength and with stan high pressure.

b) Corrosive liquids can be filtered.

c) It provides large surface area for filtration.

d) Cake can be easily removed.

22 / 60

22. The time interval between placing the order for purchase and receipt of items is called_______.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Waiting time

b) Lead time

c) Reorder time

d) Buffer time

The time interval between placing the order for purchase and receipt of items is called lead time. It represents how long it takes for an order to be fulfilled from the time the order is placed until the estimated data of receipt.

23 / 60

23. Which of the following types of glass containers used for parenteral preparation is most resistant to chemical deterioration?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Type IV

b) Type III

c) Type I

d) Type II

The glass containers used for pharmaceutical packaging, are made of Type-I glass, which is known as borosilicate glass, This type of glass has a high melting point to withstand high temperatures, it also has high hydrolytic resistance and it is resistant to chemical substances. Borosilicate glass (Type-I) is used for laboratory glass apparatus, water for injection and for parenteral and non-parenteral use.

24 / 60

24. Rapid development of tolerance of repeated doses of a drug in quick succession, with reduction in clinical response, is termed as____.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Tachyphylaxis

b) Antagonism

c) Idiosyncrasy

d) Synergism

25 / 60

25. Which of the following is considered the heart of the patient counselling session?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Closing of the session

b) Preparing for the session

c) Opening of the session

d) Counselling content

The heart of the patient counseling session is the counseling content. During this step, it has been explained to the patient by a pharmacist about his or her medications and treatment regimens.

26 / 60

26. Following equipment is not used for mixing of solids

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Tumbler mixer

b) Double cone blender

c) Paddle mixer

d) Air mixer

27 / 60

27. The number of newly added monographs in Indian pharmacopoeia 2022 is:

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) 92

b) 74

c) 103

d) 63

Indian pharmacopoeia 2022 {I,P - 2022} Contains a total of 92 new monographs, including 60 chemicals 21 vitamins, minerals, amino acids, etc, 3 biotechnology-derived therapeutic products, 4- human-derived therapeutic products, 4- human vaccines, 2 blood and blood-related products, 2 herbs and herbal related products, and seven phytopharmaceutical ingredients.

28 / 60

28. The Latin term for eardrops is __________.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Collutorium

b) Collyrium

c) Auristillae

d) Haustus

29 / 60

29. Which test microorganism is used for most heat sterilization technique?

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a) Bacillus Subtillis

b) Bacillus popilliae

c) Bacillus thermophiles

d) Bacillus thuringiensis

Sterilization :- It is the removal of all forms of microorganisms from the surface of an object. It includes both vegetative and spore forms
• Sterilization is classified into two types - physical and chemical sterilization -
• Physical sterilization includes heat sterilization it is done by two methods: Moist heat sterilization & Dry heat sterilization, Filtration, Irradiation (Non-ionizing radiation & Ionizing radiation), sound waves vibration, Fractional sterilization.
• Chemical sterilization are two types : gaseous and liquid.
• Moist Heat sterilization is one of the best methods of sterilization. It is done with the help of an instrument called an autoclave. An autoclave works on the principle of producing steam under pressure. Thus moist heat sterilization is also known as stem sterilization.
• Some micro-organisms resistant to moist heat sterilization
• Bacillus subtilis variety 5230.
• Bacillus stearothermophilus.
• Clostridium sporogenes.
Note:- The commission has accepted option (c) only correct answer to this question.

30 / 60

30. As per GMP permitted limit of soluble content in water for injection is____________

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a) 10 ppm

b) 0.01 ppm

c) 0.1 ppm

d) 1 ppm

As per GMP permitted limit of soluble content in water for injection is 10 ppm.
• Water is the most common aqueous vehicle used in pharmaceuticals. Several types of water are used in the preparation of drug product such as Nonpotable water, portable water, purified water for injection, sterile water for injection, Bacterio static WFI, sterile water for inhalation , etc.
• Water for Injection is a solvent used in the production of prarenteral and other preparations where products endotoxin content must be controlled, and in other pharmaceutical applications WFI is sterile, non pyrogenic, distailled water for the preparation of products for parenteral use. The WFI monograph also allows it to be packed in bulk for commercial use.

31 / 60

31. Dose calculation based on body surface area is depicted by ____ formula.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Bruntion's

b) Fried's

c) Crawford Terry Rourke's

d) Augsberger's

32 / 60

32. Clark's formula of dose calculation is based on________.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Body weight

b) Body mass index

c) Body surface area

d) Age

33 / 60

33. Observe prescription below and identify type of incompatibility: Rx Tetracycline chloride-250 mg Send 7 capsules

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Chemical Incompatibility

b) Physical Incompatibility

c) All of these

d) Therapeutic Incompatibility

34 / 60

34. Supplement to IP 1955 was published in the year________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) 1958

b) 1960

c) 1961

d) 1959

35 / 60

35. Which is not true for dry gum method?

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) All apparatus should be dry

b) Dry acacia is used

c) Primary emulsion is viscous and creamy

d) It is a quick process

36 / 60

36. Carbohydrate is given as a source of carbon in a culture medium. Which gas will evolve during the growth of bacteria in the medium?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) SO2

b) CO2

c) H2

d) N2

The primary source of carbon, used in typical cell culture media is carbohydrate (or glucose). In this process some of the carbon turns in CO2 during respiration while providing energy to the cell metabolism.

37 / 60

37. What is Humectant?

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a) Used to prevent drying of cream

b) Reduce particle size

c) Used to improve humidity

d) Reduce particle density

A humectant is a common moisturizing agent found in lotions, shampoos, and other beauty products used for our hair and skin. These are also used in many products including food, cosmetics, medicines and pesticides. It comes in three main forms: natural or unchanged, naturally derived, and synthetic.
• All humectants bind with water but some of them have an additional role. Some humectants first break down the dead skin cells clogging up our skin's surface.

38 / 60

38. In the working of cyclone separator, the suspension of solid in gas is introduced through

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Central opening at top of cylinder

b) Tangential opening at the cylinder

c) Conical end opening at the base

d) All of these

39 / 60

39. The evaporating pan is heated with_______

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Electric heaters

b) Chemical combustion

c) Steam

d) Liquefied petroleum gas

40 / 60

40. Which of the following is not a filter aid?

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a) Diatomaceous earth

b) Perlite

c) Cotton

d) Cellulose

41 / 60

41. “Post cibum” means_________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) As needed

b) In morning

c) After meal

d) At bedtime

42 / 60

42. ________ is an important inventory control technique that is useful in determining how much to order.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) ABC

b) EOQ

c) VEN

d) VED

ABC is an important inventory control technique useful in determining how much to order. It classifies the inventory items based on the item's consumption values.

43 / 60

43. Gelatin is used as__________

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a) Sweetener

b) Encapsulating agent

c) Antifungal agent

d) Stabilizer

Gelatin is a protein made from animal collagen, usually from cows and pigs. It's commonly used to make capsules, cosmetics, ointments and foods. It is commonly utilized as a gelling agent.
• It was selected as encapsulating material because being commonly used as a food ingredient it possesses unique gelation properties and is commercially available at a low cost.

44 / 60

44. In 1885, which of the following pharmacopoeias was made official in India?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) United States pharmacopoeia

b) Indian pharmacopoeia

c) European pharmacopoeia

d) British pharmacopoeia

45 / 60

45. Fluid preparation applied to skin without friction are________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Liniment

b) Lotion

c) Creams

d) Jellies

46 / 60

46. In dry powder inhalers, material like____ is made to modify adhesive properties between drug and carrier particles.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Leucine

b) Proline

c) Serine

d) Glycine

In dry powder inhalers, material like Leucine is made to modify adhesive properties between drug and carrier particles. Leucine actually has multiple purposes as it inhances the dispensability and aerosolization of particles, and hence increase their emitted dose and fine particle fraction (FPF).

47 / 60

47. Which of the following test is not official in as per Indian Pharmacopoeia?

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Uniformity of container content

b) Uniformity of weight

c) Content of active ingredient

d) Friability

48 / 60

48. The part of prescription containing directions to the pharmacist for preparing the prescription and for dispensing them, is known as ___.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Refilling

b) Superscription

c) Signa.

d) Subscription

49 / 60

49. What does the Latin term 'Dolore Urgente' signify in a prescription?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) To be taken frequently

b) To be taken when the cough is severe

c) To be taken when the pain is severe

d) To be taken immediately

In a prescription the Latin term 'Dolore Urgents' signifies that it is to be taken when the pain is severe.

50 / 60

50. In which drug distribution system are medications ordered, packed, handled, administered and charged in multiples of single-dose units containing a predetermined amount of drug?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Unit dose dispensing method

b) Complete floor stock system

c) Individual prescription system

d) Centralised distribution system

Unit dose dispensing method is the drug distributing system, where medications ordered, packed, handled, administered and charged in multiples of singledose units containing a pre-determined amount of drugs.

51 / 60

51. The meaning and full form of 'ad. Lib' are _________ and _________, respectively.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) As much as you please; Ad. libitum

b) The remainder; Ad. libitum

c) The half; Ad. libitum

d) As often as necessary; Ad. libitum

The pharase Ad. Lib is a shortened form of the Latin Ad. libitum, which means at one's pleasure or as much as one likes.

52 / 60

52. Which is not correct for deflocculate suspension?

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Particle present as separate unit

b) Chances of cake formation are more

c) Sediment is difficult to redisperse

d) Particles settle fast

53 / 60

53. What is the source of the Cargile membrane suture?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Sheep

b) Ox

c) Silkworm

d) Horse

A Cargile membrane suture was prominently used in the beginning 20th century in abdominal surgery. It is made from the peritoneum of the Ox.

54 / 60

54. The first British Pharmacopoeia was published in ___________ .

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) 1885

b) 1932

c) 1968

d) 1864

55 / 60

55. The standard test for catgut involving measurement by means of dial reading micrometer is known as the test for ________.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Contaminants

b) Gauge

c) Sterility

d) Tensile strength

56 / 60

56. A prescription contains 'Oculent. Ciprofloxacin 0.3% b.i.d.' As a pharmacist, how you will give instructions to the patient regarding its use?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) Before dinner, apply on wound

b) Twice a day, apply on wound

c) Twice a day, apply on the eyes

d) Before dinner, apply on the eyes

The abbreviation for b.i.d is bis in die which in Latin means twice a day, and oculent is the term for eye medicine. Therefore, Oculent. Ciprofloxacin 0.3% b.i.d represents the pharmacist's instruction as twice a day on the eyes.

57 / 60

57. Weight variations in tablet processing is caused by all of the following except __________.

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a) Higher speed of turret

b) Poor flow of granules

c) Presence of excessive fines

d) Non uniform granule size distribution

58 / 60

58. The part of the prescription called inscription contains_______

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a) Name and age

b) Registration number and patient information

c) Signature and address

d) Name and quantity of ingredients

59 / 60

59. If the Carr's index of powder is 10% type of powder flow is ………?

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a) Average

b) Good

c) Excellent

d) Poor

The Carr's index is an indicator of the compressibility of a powder. It is named after the scientist Raph J. Carr, Jr. The Carr index is calculated by the formula

60 / 60

60. _________ is an extra pharmacopeia.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a) BP

b) BPC

c) Martindale

d) IP

Martindale is an extra pharmacopeia and it named so, as it was originally produced by the William Martindale in 1883 and now published by the pharmaceutical society of Great Britain. It contains information on the drugs presently used in Great Britain.

Your score is

The average score is 32%

Pharmaceutical Chemistry Quiz 1

Pharmaceutical Chemistry Quiz Based of Previous Year Pharmacist Exam Paper Part 1

Get ready to test your knowledge in the field of Pharmaceutical Chemistry. Please click on the right option to answer the questions. Good luck!

Please login to participate in this Quiz!

NameEmail

1 / 60

1. Antacids containing ______ inhibit absorption of tetracycline from Intestine.

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. Magnesium carbonate

b. Sodium bicarbonate

c. Calcium carbonate

d. Magaldrate

2 / 60

2. Compound Benzoin tincture formula does not contain following ingredient:

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Storax

b. Aloe

c. Glycerin

d. Tolu Balsam

3 / 60

3. Chemical formula of bleaching powder.

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a. CaCO3

b. CaO

c. CaCO3

d. CaOCl2

4 / 60

4. The first stage of characteristic triple response upon injection of histamine is named?

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Dolor

b. Wheal

c. Flush

d. Flare

5 / 60

5. Burns caused by which of the following substances can be called both thermal and chemical burns?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Sodium hydroxide

b. Hydrochloric acid

c. Copper sulphate

d. Phosphorous

6 / 60

6. The drug delivery deep into skin by means of galvanic current is called________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Iontophoresis

b. Intrathecal

c. Depilation

d. Inunction

7 / 60

7. Kallikrein is activated by_______

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Renin

b. Phospholipase

c. Hageman factor

d. Kininase

8 / 60

8. Cidex is known as ……..

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. 0.1% solution of glutaraldehyde

b. 1% solution of glutaraldehyde

c. 0.2% solution of glutaraldehyde

d. 2% solution of glutaraldehyde

Glutaraldehyde is an organic compound with the formula (CH2)3 (CHO)2.
• Glutaraldehyde, sold under the brand name Cidex and Glutaral, is a disinfectant, medication, preservative and fixative.

9 / 60

9. Antimony potassium tartarate is _____ in taste.

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Astringent

b. Bitter

c. Sweet

d. Acrid

10 / 60

10. Belching may be caused by antacid preparations containing_______

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Calcium carbonate

b. Sodium bicarbonate

c. Magnesium carbonate

d. Aluminium hydroxide

11 / 60

11. Calamine is__________

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Zinc oxide

b. Zinc carbonate

c. Zinc acetate

d. Zinc Sulphate

12 / 60

12. Which of the following reagent is used in the Osazone test?

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a. Phenylhydrazine

b. Pyridine

c. Phenylbutazone

d. Phenylephrine

13 / 60

13. To check presence of Barium in sample, little quantity of substance is dissolved in 5 ml HCl, followed by addition of 2 ml H2SO4, which produces:

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Red colour solution

b. Brown fumes

c. Pungent Gas

d. White precipitate

14 / 60

14. Which compound of sulphur is used in shampoos for anti-dandruff qualities. Or _________ is used for treating dandruff.

Safdarjung Pharmacist Mains (21.11.2023), ESIC Gujarat Jr. Pharmacist (31.08.2014)

a. Yellow mercuric oxide

b. Sulphur

c. Selenium sulphide

d. Titanium dioxide

15 / 60

15. Zinc chloride is used as ______.

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023), RUSH Pharmacist (16.06.2012)

a. Astringent

b. Emulsifying agent

c. Preservative

d. Stabilizer

16 / 60

16. The citric acid is used in iron limit test :

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a. To prevent the colour due to chloride

b. To prevent the colour due to lead

c. To prevent the colour due to copper

d. To prevent the colour due to sulphate

17 / 60

17. Aqueous iodine solution is called_______

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023), UP NHM Pharmacist (28.12.2022)

a. Marthins solution

b. Bendits solution

c. Fischer Solution

d. Lugol's solution

18 / 60

18. Which of the Following used to relieve dental hypersensitivity? Or Which of the following is a desensitizing agent used as a dental product?

TNPSC Drugs Inspector (27.06.2019), AMC Pharmacist (05.11.2023)

a. Calcium phosphate

b. Stannous fluoride

c. Sodium fluoride

d. Strontium chloride

19 / 60

19. Simeco is combination antacid containing Or Which of the following is usually given in combination with Aluminium hydroxide as an antacid?

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022), AMC Pharmacist (05.11.2023)

a. Aluminium hydroxide magnesium carbonate co-dried gel, magnesium hydroxide and dimethicone

b. Combination of aluminum hydroxide and magnesium carbonate

c. Calcium carbonate with aluminium hydroxide gel, magnesium hydroxide and dimethicone

d. Co-precipitate of aluminium hydroxide and magnesium carbonate

20 / 60

20. Which of the following is a vesicular drug delivery system?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Liposomes

b. Iontophoresis

c. Collodion

d. Implant

21 / 60

21. Compound Sodium Lactate injection is used as Fluid electrolyte replenisher and _____.

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Irrigation

b. Nutrient

c. Systemic alkalizer

d. Diuretic

22 / 60

22. _______ gas is most widely used in "fire extinguishers"

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual(04.08.2022)

a. Carbon dioxide

b. Oxygen

c. Nitric Oxide

d. Argon

23 / 60

23. The lightest radioactive element is_________

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. Deuterium

b. Tritium

c. Uranium

d. Polonium

24 / 60

24. In which one of following oxygen is not used?

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. In Rocket fuels

b. Severe pulmonary damage

c. Carbon monoxide poisoning

d. In soft drinks

25 / 60

25. Body of nitrous oxide cylinder is painted________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. White

b. Blue

c. Black

d. Grey

26 / 60

26. Which of the following is used as an antidote for Organophosphorus and carbamate pesticides poisoning?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Neostigmine

b. Vesamicol

c. Atropine sulfate

d. Hemicholinium

27 / 60

27. Antimony Potassium tartarate is used as_______

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Emetic

b. Expectorant

c. Antimicrobial

d. Styptic

28 / 60

28. Which of the following excipient is included in metered dose inhalers to increase the vapor pressure of the propellant?

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual(04.08.2022)

a. Tween

b. Ethanol

c. Oleic acid

d. Antioxidants

29 / 60

29. A suspensoid in suspension formulation is:

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. A wetting agent

b. An active drug

c. A solubilising vehicle

d. A preservative

30 / 60

30. Formula of Rochelle's salt is________

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. C2H4O6KNa.4H2O

b. C2H2O6KNa.4H2O

c. C4H2O6KNa.4H2O

d. C4H4O6KNa.4H2O

31 / 60

31. A medicinal agent which promotes the secretion of bile is _____.

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Sialogogue

b. Emmenagogue

c. Cholagogue

d. Hydrogogue

32 / 60

32. Calamine is _________

HPSSC Pharmacist (19.08.2018), ESIC Delhi Pharmacist (19.03.2016), Lucknow Cantoment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Basic zinc carbonate

b. Basic zinc sulfate

c. Basic zinc oxide

d. Basic zinc hydroxide

Zinc oxide is amphoteric nature not only basic. Zinc oxide is an inorganic compound which is also known as calamine or zinc white.
→ Zinc carbonate is basic and it is a white crystalline powder that occurs naturally as granular or earhty masses. It is referred to as smithsonite or calamine or zinc spar.
NOTE– The commission has considered option (a) as answer.

33 / 60

33. The factors affecting rate of settling of particles of a suspension are based on:

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Henry's law

b. Raoult's law

c. Poiseuille's Law

d. Stoke's law

34 / 60

34. Hydrogen peroxide is used as________

GSSSB Jr. Pharmacist (18.02.2018), AMC Pharmacist (05.11.2023)

a. Haematinics

b. Protective

c. Antiseptic

d. Acidifying agent

35 / 60

35. Direction to the dispenser are contained in______

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. Subscription

b. Signatura

c. Inscription

d. Superscription

36 / 60

36. Itai-itai disease is associated with____poisoning.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Cadmium

b. Lead

c. Iron

d. Mercury

37 / 60

37. Chemical intoxications occurring over 24 hours or less than that result in____ toxicity.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Acute

b. Sub chronic

c. Chronic

d. Sub acute

38 / 60

38. The average salinity of seawater is__________

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. 2.5%

b. 2%

c. 3.5%

d. 3%

39 / 60

39. An extraction process in which water is poured over drugs, allowing close contact for stated period and finally liquid is filtered off is called:

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Maceration

b. Percolation

c. Infusion

d. Digestion

40 / 60

40. Which is not correct with respect to Griseofulvin ?

a. It is not effective against candida and largely excreted in urine

b. It is not effective against candida

c. It is largely excreted in urine

d. It acts as purine analogue

e. It interferes with nucleic acid synthesis

41 / 60

41. Chemical formula of Sodium Metabisulphite is_________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. NaS2O4

b. NaS2O

c. NaS2O5

d. NaSO

42 / 60

42. Electrolytes concentration are expressed in_____.

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Mol/L

b. Mg/L%

c. Mmol/L

d. MEq/L

43 / 60

43. Which is used as a deodorant?

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Aluminium Chloral Hydrate

b. Buffered Aluminium Sulphate

c. Hexamethylene Tetramine

d. Petrolatum

44 / 60

44. Which of the following is a water immiscible liquid, encapsulated into soft gelatine capsules?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Ethoxylated sorbitan

b. Secondary alcohol

c. Chlorinated hydrocarbon

d. Poly ether

45 / 60

45. The specific antidote used for atropine poisoning is ____.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Protamine

b. Mercaptide

c. Physostigmine

d. Bemegride

46 / 60

46. What is the common name of Calcium hypochlorite?

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. Washing soda

b. Baking soda

c. Baking powder

d. Bleaching powder

47 / 60

47. Rad is the _____.

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Unit of absorbed dose

b. Unit of radioactivity

c. Unit of ionizing radiation

d. Unit of exposure

48 / 60

48. Mechanism of action of Isonicotinic acid hydrazide is_________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Combine with bacterial ribosome and interfere with mRNA

b. Inhibit bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase

c. Interfere with utilization of p-amino benzoic acid

d. Inhibit phospholipid synthesis and damage bacterial cell wall

49 / 60

49. Ammonium carbonate acts as respiratory stimulant by_________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Irritating lungs.

b. Binding to receptors on lungs.

c. Through CNS.

d. Binding to receptors on intercoastal muscles.

50 / 60

50. Which of the following is a physical sunscreen? Or Which of the following is used in sunburn ?

AMC Pharmacist (05.11.2023), VSSC Pharmacist-A (07.11.2021)

a. TiO2

b. Silicone oil

c. Para aminobenzoic acid

d. Methyl salicylate

Titanium dioxide as a sunscreen agent functions in similar to zinc oxide. The particles of Titanium dioxide are not absorbed into your skin, so they stay on the surface. The bright surface of the mineral reflects UV rays away from the body. Since the rays never reach your skin you or protected.

51 / 60

51. The burns involving the outermost layer of skin are called ___ degree burns.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Second

b. First

c. Third

d. Fourth

52 / 60

52. Sodium nitrite _____ type of antidote.

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Pharmacological

b. Chemical

c. Physical

d. Physiological

53 / 60

53. Ecchymosis of the skin is associated with____.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Dog bite

b. Snake bite

c. Rat bite

d. Leech bite

'Ecchymosis' is the medical term for bruises, and these form when blood pools under the skin powerful Jaws of some dogs have enough force that can give bruising to the skin through its teeth and leave some redness upon it. Therefore ecchymosis is associated with dog-bite.

54 / 60

54. At acidic pH, the amino acid is________

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. In anionic form

b. In zwitter ion form

c. In cationic form

d. In salt form

55 / 60

55. Which is used for local styptic ?

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a. Sodium sulphate

b. Alum

c. Potassium bitartrate

d. Zinc oxide

56 / 60

56. Which of the following is used as Vulcanizing agent in the manufacture of rubber closure?

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a. Activated carbon black

b. Sulphur

c. All of these

d. Stearic acid

57 / 60

57. _____ ions are responsible for release of AcH from neurons.

HPSSC Pharmacist (22.08.2022)

a. Sodium

b. Magnesium

c. Calcium

d. Potassium

58 / 60

58. An example of quenching vapour used in the Geiger Muller counter is_________

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. Ar

b. Cl

c. He

d. N

59 / 60

59. Which antidote is used in copper poisoning?

GPSSB Jr. Pharmacist (08.05.2022)

a. D-Peniciliamine

b. Magnesium sulphate

c. Sodium Phosphate

d. Kaolin

60 / 60

60. For elapids venom, the drug effectively used in hospital management is ____.

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Caffeine

b. Methyl dopa

c. Domperidone

d. Neostigamine

Your score is

The average score is 33%

Pharmacology and Toxicology Quiz 1

Pharmacology and Toxicology Quiz Based of Previous Year Pharmacist Exam Paper Part 1

Get ready to test your knowledge in the field of Pharmacology and Toxicology. Please click on the right option to answer the questions. Good luck!

Please login to participate in this Quiz!

NameEmail

1 / 60

1. Pyrazinamide is______

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Pyrazine-3-carboxamide

b. Pyrazine-2-carboxamide

c. Pyrazine-1-carboxamide

d. Pyrazine-4-carboxamide

2 / 60

2. Which of the following drug is used in Herpes infection?

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a. Idoxuridine

b. Zidovudine

c. Efavirenz

d. Amantadine

3 / 60

3. Which of the following drugs acts as ulcer protective agent?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Sodium citrate

b. Ambroxol

c. Cimetidine

d. Sucralfate

4 / 60

4. Chlorpromazine exerts antipsychotic action by_____

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Inhibition of hypothalamic stimulation responses

b. Depleting stores of 5-Hydroxy tryptamine in brain

c. Depleting stores of catecholamines

d. Blocking postsynaptic dopamine receptors

5 / 60

5. Reduced bronchodilation by a beta2 agonist prescribed with a non-selective beta-blocker is an example of:

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Pharmacodynamic drug-drug interaction

b. Behavioural drug-drug interaction

c. Pharmaceutical drug-drug interaction

d. Pharmacokinetic drug-drug interaction

6 / 60

6. Choose the correct example of proton pump inhibitor.

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a. Albendazole

b. Itraconazole

c. Pantoprazole

d. Alprazolam

7 / 60

7. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding Gemfibrozil?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. With statins, it increases the chances of myopathy.

b. It decreases the synthesis of lipoprotein lipase.

c. It markedly reduces circulating VLDL and triglyceride.

d. It is an agonist at PPAR-α nuclear receptors.

8 / 60

8. Ivermectin exerts its anthelmintic action through:

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Activation of glutamate gated ci- channel

b. Leakage of intracellular Ca +2

c. Activation of glycine gated c1- channel

d. Activation of nicotinic cholinergic receptors

9 / 60

9. Which antihypertensive drug is a direct renin inhibitor?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Phenoxybenzamine

b. Moexipril

c. Moxonidine

d. Aliskiren

10 / 60

10. Match List I with List II Match the following with their mechanism of action:

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. A ‐ II, B ‐ III, C ‐IV , D ‐I

b. A ‐IV, B ‐ I, C ‐V , D ‐III

c. A ‐IV , B ‐III , C ‐II , D ‐I

d. A ‐II , B ‐V , C ‐III , D ‐IV

11 / 60

11. A suppository is generally intended for use in________

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a. All of these

b. Vagina

c. Urethra

d. Rectum

12 / 60

12. Match List I with List II, Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. 1:R, 2:Q, 3: S, 4: T, 5: P

b. 1:T, 2:Q, 3: R, 4:P, 5:S

c. 1:Q, 2:S, 3:P, 4:R, 5: T

d. 1:P, 2:Q, 3: T, 4: S, 5: R

13 / 60

13. Which of the following agents is NOT a teratogen?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Amphotericin B

b. Thalidomide

c. Streptomycin

d. Tetracyciline

14 / 60

14. Which of the following antihistaminic drug is a propylamine derivative?

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a. Pyrilamine

b. Diphenhydramine

c. Cyclizine

d. Chlorpheniramine

15 / 60

15. ____________ is the study of how the body interacts with administered substances for the entire duration of exposure.

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Pharmacodynamics

b. Bioactivation

c. Pharmacokinetics

d. Biotransformation

16 / 60

16. Scientific research is the primary source of:

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Textbooks

b. Drug information

c. Database

d. Review articles

17 / 60

17. Phenformin was withdrawn worldwide owing to high risk of:

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Keto alkalosis

b. Lactic acidosis

c. Lactic alkalosis

d. Keto acidosis

18 / 60

18. An example of pyrazolone derivative analgesic is______

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Phenacetin

b. Mefanamic acid

c. Indomethacine

d. Phenylbutazone

19 / 60

19. Which enzyme catalyses the bioactivation of nitroglycerin into NO?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Glycerol kinase

b. Tyrosine kinase

c. Aldehyde dehydrogenase 2

d. Glycerol dehydrogenase

20 / 60

20. Dapagliflozin causes hypoglycaemia by:

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Inhibiting gluconeogenesis in liver an kidney

b. Increasing glucose excretion in urine

c. Increased glucose uptake in cell

d. sensitizing insulin receptors

21 / 60

21. Penicillin produces _____ upon hydrolysis with hot dilute inorganic acids.

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Penicillamine

b. Pencilloic acid

c. Propicillin

d. Benzyl penicillin

22 / 60

22. Bleeding due to displacement of warfarin from protein-binding sites is a type of ________ drug interaction.

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. analgesic

b. antihypertensive

c. anticoagulant

d. oral antidiabetic

23 / 60

23. Regarding Bromocriptine, which of the following statement is TRUE It is a relatively selective dopamine D2 agonist with prominent action
A. on pituitary lactotrophs (inhibit prolactin release)
B. in striatum (antiparkinsonian)
C. in CTZ (antiemetic)
D. as an adjunctive treatment for type 2 DM
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. A, B and D only

b. B and D only

c. A, B and C only

d. A and B only

24 / 60

24. Antihypertensive drugs are an example of:

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. regulated dose

b. titrated dose

c. target level dose

d. standard dose

25 / 60

25. The following drug is dopaminergic agonist:

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a. Entacapone

b. Bromocriptine

c. Selegiline

d. Carbidopa

26 / 60

26. Which of the following antidiabetic drug is Sulfonyl urea derivative?

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a. Pioglitazone

b. Linagliptin

c. Glibenclamide

d. Metformin

27 / 60

27. __________ are the agents that help in lowering increased lipid levels.

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Antihypertensive drugs

b. Antidotes

c. Haematinics

d. Hypolipidemic drugs

28 / 60

28. Which of the following is the WHO Collaborating Centre for Pharmacovigilance in Public Health Programmes and Regulatory Services?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. The Netherlands Pharmacovigilance Centre Lareb

b. Norwegian Institute of Public Health

c. Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission

d. Uppsala Monitoring Centre

29 / 60

29. How does phenylephrine differs from adrenaline?

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a. Lacking 4-NH group on the benzene ring.

b. Lacking 4-CONH2 group on the benzene ring

c. Lacking 4-COOH group on the benzene ring.

d. Lacking 4-OH group on the benzene ring.

30 / 60

30. The following drug is acting by inhibition HMG-Co-A enzyme:

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a. Streptokinas

b. Fenofibrate

c. Penicillin

d. Rosuvastatin

31 / 60

31. Adverse side effects of Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors like insomnia, increased anxiety, irritability and decrease libido are due to:

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Excessive stimulation of brain 5HT2 receptors

b. Excessive stimulation of brain 5HT4 receptors

c. Excessive stimulation of brain 5HT3 receptors

d. (a) Excessive stimulation of brain 5HT1B receptors

32 / 60

32. Reason for the combination of Diphenoxylate (2.5 mg) + Atropine (0.025 mg) is to_____

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. Discourage abuse of Diphenoxylate

b. Augment the anti‐motility action of Diphenoxylate

c. Inhibits the side effects of Diphenoxylate

d. Suppress gastroenteritis‐related vomiting

33 / 60

33. A patient with pheochromcytoma is undergoing surgery and has not been administered with alpha receptor blocker. If he is administered with intravenous propranolol, then which of the following effects will be evident?

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. The blood pressure will remain unchanged

b. The patient may suffer severe bronchoconstriction

c. There will be a fall in the blood pressure

d. There will be a rise in the blood pressure

34 / 60

34. _____ is an example of high sedative.

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Chlorpheniramine

b. Pheniramine

c. Diphenhydramine

d. Cyproheptadine

35 / 60

35. Which of the following is not an endogenous compound?

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Dopamine

b. Desipramine

c. Endorphins

d. Noradrenaline

36 / 60

36. The quadruple therapy of Helicobacter pylori infection includes:

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. Sulfasalazine, metronidazole, tetracycline and a proton pump inhibitor

b. Bismuth subsalicylate, metronidazole, azithromycin and a proton pump inhibitor

c. Bismuth subsalicylate, metronidazole, tetracycline and a proton pump inhibitor

d. Streptomycin, metronidazole, tetracycline and a proton pump inhibitor

37 / 60

37. Which of the following effect is produced by Saroglitazar?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Increasing the HDL is plasma

b. Lowering the LDL-CH in plasma

c. Lowering the LDL in plasma

d. Decrease the glucose as well as lipid in plasma

38 / 60

38. Sympathetic blocking drug “guanethidine” acts by

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Interfering with transmission of impulse across postganglionic adrenergic neuron

b. By interfering with synthesis of adrenergic transmitter

c. Depleting catecholamines

d. By blocking adrenergic receptors

39 / 60

39. In ADR, unusual and unexpected drug effects are known as:

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Idiosyncrasy

b. Allergic drug reactions

c. Excessive pharmacological effects

d. Secondary pharmacological effects

40 / 60

40. Which of the following is a sod-glucose cotransport-2 (SGLT-2) inhibitor?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Pioglitazone

b. Dapagliflozin

c. Sitagliptin

d. Voglibose

41 / 60

41. Which of the following statement/s are correct regarding the alkylating agents as anticancer agents:
A. They get converted into highly nucleophilic anions and bind to the nitrogen atom of guanine intercalating the DNA strands
B. Cyclophosphamide and busulfan belong to this class
C. They inhibit the DNA synthesis by inhibiting the DNA polymerase enzyme
D. They inhibit the DNA supercoiling by irreversibly inhibiting the DNA topoisomerase enzyme

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. Only A and B are correct

b. A, B and D only are correct

c. All A, B, C and D are correct

d. Only B is correct

42 / 60

42. How many pharmacists are required for a 100-bed hospital?

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. 06

b. 02

c. 05

d. 10

Bed strength
No of pharmacists Required
UP to 50 beds
3
UP to 100 beds 5
UP to 200 beds 8
UP to 300 beds 10
UP to 500 beds 15

43 / 60

43. Tendon rupture or tendonitis of Achilles tendon is an adverse reaction of:

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. Tetracyclines

b. Aminoglycosides

c. Fluoroquinolones

d. Cephalosporins

44 / 60

44. Which of the following is not an action of amphetamine?

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Decreasing systolic and diastolic BP

b. Increased mental and physical activity

c. Reduces appetite

d. Potent CNS stimulation

45 / 60

45. An example of adsorbent is________

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Cellulose

b. Magnesium stearate

c. Acacia

d. Magnesium silicate

46 / 60

46. Bitter metallic taste is characteristic of drug

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Tetracycline

b. Mepyramine

c. Glibenclamide

d. Phenformin

47 / 60

47. Which of the following is not a screening method for antidiabetic agents?

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Adrenaline-induced acute hyperglcaemia

b. Bio-breeding rat

c. Tooth pulp stimulation

d. Euglcaemic clamp technique

48 / 60

48. Which drug is an HIV protease inhibitor?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Nevirapine

b. Acyclovir

c. Delavirdine

d. Lopinavir

49 / 60

49. The TDM refers to:

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Treatment Drug Monitoring

b. Therapeutic Drug Monitoring

c. Therapeutic Dose Monitoring

d. Therapeutic Dose Management

50 / 60

50. __________ are drugs which treat rhinitis and other allergic conditions.

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Antimicrobial agents

b. Antihistamines

c. Penicillamine

d. Amphetamine

51 / 60

51. General anaesthetics are_____ of the central nervous system.

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Stabilisers

b. Activators

c. Stimulators

d. Depressants

52 / 60

52. Which of the following is not a muscarinic action of Acetylcholine?

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Increase in tone and activity of smooth muscle

b. Vasodilation

c. Decrease in heart rate

d. Inhibition of gastric secretions

53 / 60

53. Which of the following dye is used for the leakage test?

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Methylene blue

b. Methylene rose

c. Methyl violet

d. Methyl orange

54 / 60

54. The ‘Up‐and‐Down’ method for a projected LD50 determination is described in the…..

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. OECD Guideline 401

b. OECD Guideline 420

c. OECD Guideline 423

d. OECD Guideline 425

55 / 60

55. Which of the following statements related to the location of drug information services/centre is INCORRECT?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. It should be near the pharmacy department.

b. It should be near the hospital library.

c. It should be away from inpatient and outpatient departments.

d. It should be near the operation theatre.

56 / 60

56. A neonate suffering from icterus is intravenously administered with phenobarbital. The justification for this therapy is:

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. Phenobarbital suppresses the bilirubin synthesis in neonatesj

b. Phenobarbital suppresses hepatic glucuronyl transferase and increases clearance of bilirubin

c. Phenobarbital is a short acting barbiturate and hence safe to induce sleep in neonates

d. Phenoarbital induces hepatic glucuronyl transferase and increases clearance of bilirubin

57 / 60

57. Pilocarpine is______

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Selective muscarinic receptor antagonist

b. Non selective muscarinic receptor antagonist

c. Non selective muscarinic receptor agonist

d. Selective muscarinic receptor agonist

58 / 60

58. Nitric oxide synthase exists in __________

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. Three isoforms

b. Two isoforms

c. Four isoforms

d. Five isoforms

59 / 60

59. Clofazimine is a/an _____derivative. Or Which of the following heterocyclic ring is present in Clofazimine which is used for the treatment of leprosy?

AMC Pharmacist (05.11.2023), HPSSC Pharmacist(12.12.2020)

a. Phenazine

b. Azepine

c. Pyrazi

d. Phenothiazine

60 / 60

60. Which of the following is a correct match of drug and its mechanism of action in the management of congestive heart failure?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Levosimendan - Positive inotropic effect

b. Hydralazine - Preload reduction

c. Dobutamine - Reduced heart rate

d. Torasemide - Afterload reduction

Your score is

The average score is 37%

Biochemistry and Clinical Pathology 1

Biochemistry and Clinical Pathology Quiz 1

Get ready to test your knowledge in the field of Biochemistry and Clinical Pathology . Please click on the right option to answer the questions. Good luck!

Please login to participate in this Quiz!

NameEmail

1 / 58

1. Identify the heterocyclic structure:

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Pyrimidine

b. Piperazine

c. Pyridazine

d. Pyrazine

2 / 58

2. Blood: Gas partition coefficient of halothane is:

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. 16

b. 0.46

c. 2.4

d. 1.8

3 / 58

3. Alpha naphthol and KOH is used for ……

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Methyl red test

b. Voges-Proskauer test

c. Indole test

d. Citrate test

4 / 58

4. Terpenoid fenchone has following ring system:

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. One six member ring and one five member ring

b. Two six member rings

c. One six member ring and one four member ring

d. One six member ring and one three member ring

5 / 58

5. Which of the following is NOT the IUPAC system of nomenclature?

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. 1-butene

b. Isobutene

c. 2-butene

d. 2-methyl propene

6 / 58

6. Chlorocresol has following functional groups attached to it:

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Two methyl groups, one hydroxyl group and one chlorine

b. Two methyl groups, two hydroxyl groups and two chlorine

c. One methyl group, one hydroxyl group and one chlorine

d. Two methyl groups, two hydroxyl group and one chlorine

7 / 58

7. Identification test for Acetate is performed by heating sample solution with equal quantity of oxalic acid. Presence of acetate is detected by:

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. Characteristic odour

b. Red colour solution

c. White precipitate

d. Brown fumes

8 / 58

8. Sucrose liberates glucose and fructose by hydrolysis of___

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Lactase

b. Invertase

c. Hyaluronidase

d. Amylose

9 / 58

9. Staggered and eclipsed is a type of________

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Enantiomer

b. Tautomer

c. Conformer

d. Geometrical isomer

10 / 58

10. Chlorophyll is a naturally occurring chelate compound in which central metal is_____

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Copper

b. Calcium

c. Magnesium

d. Iron

11 / 58

11. The number of ATP produced when a molecule of acetyl CoA is oxidised through citric acid cycle is____

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual(04.08.2022)

a. 24

b. 38

c. 12

d. 15

12 / 58

12. Which sugar does not give a positive Benedict’s test?

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Sucrose

b. Lactose

c. Glucose

d. Maltose

13 / 58

13. Which category of drugs that are prohibited to be imported:

Kerala PSC Pharmacist Gr.II(27.10.2022)

a. Misbranded Drugs

b. Schedule H drugs

c. Unani Drugs

d. Toilet preparations

14 / 58

14. Which of the following is the simplest carbohydrate?

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Glyceraldehyde

b. Acetoacetate

c. Dihydroxyacetone

d. Glucose

15 / 58

15. Which of the following is the chif constituent of vinegar?

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Methane

b. Acetaldehyde

c. Acetic acid

d. Ethane

16 / 58

16. IUPAC name of Sulphaguanidine is______

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. 4-(2-amino phenyl) sulphonyl guanidine

b. 2-(4-amino phenyl) sulphonyl guanidine

c. 2-(4-amino pyrimidine) sulphonyl guanidine

d. 4-(2-amino pyrimidine) sulphonyl guanidine

17 / 58

17. An element essential as electron carrier is________

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Potassium

b. Iron

c. Zinc

d. Calcium

18 / 58

18. Rubber is______

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Tetraterpene

b. Monoterpene

c. Diterpene

d. Polyterpene

19 / 58

19. Mixture of amino acids can be separated by______

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Sublimation

b. Chromatography

c. Denaturation

d. Distillation

20 / 58

20. Crystallisation of sugar is due to______

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Drying

b. Unsaturation

c. Saturation

d. Low concentration

21 / 58

21. Which of the following is a soft lewis/. acid .

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Ag+

b. BF3

c. Al+3

d. HX

22 / 58

22. Osmotic potential of pure water is_____

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. One

b. Between zero and one

c. Zero

d. Less than zero

23 / 58

23. Given below are two statements
Statement I: Sequencing of DNA is much easier than RNA sequencing due to greater stability
Statement II: The chemical method of DNA sequencing (Maxam & Gilbert) works for only single stranded DNA In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. Both Statement I and Statement II are false

b. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

c. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

d. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

24 / 58

24. Hexokinase enzyme require _____ metal ions for activity.

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. K+

b. Cu2+

c. Mn2+

d. Mg2+

25 / 58

25. Cracks in lips is deficiency symptom of which vitamin?

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. B2

b. B3

c. B1

d. B4

26 / 58

26. How many isomers are possible for glucose

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. 8

b. 12

c. 16

d. 6

27 / 58

27. Pentose sugar gives which test positive?

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. Inversion test

b. Mucic acid test

c. Full saturation test

d. Bials test

28 / 58

28. Which of the following compound possess high aqueous solubility.

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Anhydrous

b. Semisolid

c. Crystals

d. Hydrated

29 / 58

29. Which of the following is meta directive:

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Nitro

b. Ester

c. Cyano

d. All the above

30 / 58

30. Glucose 6 Phosphate requires _____ metal iron for activity.

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Mn2+

b. Mg2+

c. Cu2+

d. Fe2+

31 / 58

31. The incorrect statement with respect to thesolubility property of calcium hydroxide is:

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. It is soluble in sugar solutions.

b. It is soluble in glycerol.

c. It is freely soluble in water.

d. It is insoluble in alcohol.

32 / 58

32. Role of tyrosine in body is____

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Helps alleviate insomnia.

b. Production of hormones for immunity.

c. Use by brain to produce norepinephrine.

d. Transmit nerve impulses.

33 / 58

33. Which of the following is a non-metal that remains liquid at room temperature?

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Helium

b. Phosphorous

c. Chlorine

d. Bromine

34 / 58

34. The pH of 0.1 M NaOH solution is:

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. 13

b. 5

c. 1

d. 0.1

35 / 58

35. Saturated fatty acid Arachidic acid contains _____ carbon atoms.

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. 18

b. 16

c. 20

d. 22

36 / 58

36. Which of the following is not aromatic?

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Anthracene

b. Tetracene

c. Cyclopentadiene

d. Cyclopentadienyl anion

37 / 58

37. Chemical formula for Hypophosphorus acid is:

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. HPH2O2

b. HPO2

c. H3PO2

d. H2P2O2

38 / 58

38. Which sugar gives a positive seliwanoff’s test?

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. Maltose

b. Fructose

c. Lactose

d. Glucose

39 / 58

39. Which of the following enzyme class is dependent on adenosine triphosphate?

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Oxidoreductases

b. Transferases

c. Hydrolases

d. Ligases

40 / 58

40. Which of the following is an example of a thermosetting plastic material?

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. Urethanes

b. PVC

c. Polyester

d. Polypropylene

41 / 58

41. Number of asymmetric carbon atoms in glucose is:

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. 1

b. 3

c. 4

d. 2

42 / 58

42. Which of the following vitamin helps in blood clotting?

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)/UPSSSC Pharmacist (26-03-2023)

a. Vitamin K

b. Vitamin A

c. Vitamin C

d. Vitamin D

43 / 58

43. A molecule of amylopectin which contains 1500 glucose residues and is branched after every 30 residues. How many reducing ends are there?

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. 0

b. 1

c. 2

d. 5

44 / 58

44. The normal range of cholesterol in the body is:

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. 50-100

b. 100-150

c. 150-200

d. 25-50

45 / 58

45. Starting material for synthesis of sulphadiazine is:

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. 2-amino pyridine

b. 4-amino pyrimidine

c. 4-amino pyridine

d. 2-amino pyrimidine

46 / 58

46. Which of the following is not a lipid?

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Oil

b. Protein

c. Wax

d. Fat

47 / 58

47. Identify the example of sulphur containing amino acid.

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a. Glycine

b. Aspartic acid

c. Cysteine

d. Tyrosine

48 / 58

48. Coenzyme FAD is derivative of_____

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Riboflavin

b. Niacin

c. Adenine

d. Thiamine

49 / 58

49. “Hypo” is the synonym for:

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. Hypophosphorus acid

b. Sodium Thiosulphate

c. Sodium Metabisulphite

d. Sodium Bisulphite

50 / 58

50. High magnification of electron microscope is due to:

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. Vacuum

b. Electron beam

c. Electromagnets

d. High voltage

51 / 58

51. The intermediate of SN1 reaction is______

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Ylide

b. Carbocation

c. Carbene

d. Carbanion

52 / 58

52. Coil of life is_______

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. RNA

b. Chromatin

c. Chromosome

d. DNA

53 / 58

53. A biological assay use to assess the mutagenic potential of a Pharmaceutical product is _____

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Sterility test

b. Toxicity test

c. Antibiotic assay

d. Ames test

54 / 58

54. Identify the heterocyclic ring:

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. Pyrazine

b. Pyrimidine

c. Piperazine

d. Pyridazine

55 / 58

55. Coenzyme NAD is derivative of___

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. Thiamine

b. Riboflavin

c. Adenine

d. Niacin

56 / 58

56. Which of the following is a polar aprotic Solvent:

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Ethanol

b. Chloroform

c. Water

d. DMF

57 / 58

57. Sodium in liquid ammonia is used in_____

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Wolf-Kishner reduction

b. Birch reduction

c. Stephen reduction

d. Clemenson reduction

58 / 58

58. Chemical formula for talc is____

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. 3MgO.3SiO2.H2O

b. 4MgO.4SiO2.H2O

c. 3MgO.4SiO.HO

d. 4MgO.3SiO2.H2O

Your score is

The average score is 21%

Pharmacognosy Quizz

Pharmacognosy Quiz

Get ready to test your knowledge in the field of Pharmacognosy. Please click on the right option to answer the questions. Good luck!

1 / 60

1. ‘Star spots’ present in the transverse section of decorticated Rhubarb rhizomes are‐

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. Concentric vascular bundles

b. Crystals of calcium oxalate

c. Lignified cells

d. Pericyclic fibres

2 / 60

2. Papaverine shows pharmacological activity:

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Emetic

b. Spasmolytic

c. Antitussive

d. Antipyretic

3 / 60

3. The example of pseudo alkaloid:

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Lobeline

b. Caffeine

c. Arecoline

d. Hygrine

4 / 60

4. Most essential medicines should be formulated as:

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual(04.08.2022)

a. Single compound

b. Fixed does combination

c. Multiple compounds

d. No compound

5 / 60

5. Eugenol is present in____

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Tulsi

b. Cardamom

c. Coriander

d. Fennel

6 / 60

6. An example of short day plant is______

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Chrysanthemum

b. Wheat

c. Radish

d. Maize

7 / 60

7. Asava is _____ type of ayurvedic dosage form.

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. solid

b. powder

c. semisolid

d. liquid

8 / 60

8. In case of Rauwolfia, which part of the plant is used as medicine?

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual(04.08.2022)

a. Roots

b. Leaves

c. Seeds

d. Stem

9 / 60

9. ______ are the tubular elongated outgrowth of the epidermal cell.

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Stomata

b. Trichomes

c. Leaf constants

d. Water pores

10 / 60

10. Ricinolic acid is obtained from _____.

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Agar

b. Tragacanth

c. Castor

d. Papain

11 / 60

11. Which of the following equipment is recommended for in-house quality control pharmacognosy section?

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Polarimeter

b. Viscometer

c. Refractometer

d. Dissecting microscope

12 / 60

12. Which of the following is true with regard to Ames test?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. (a) It uses rabbits to assess nephrotoxicity of chemicals.

b. It uses bacteria to assess genotoxicity of chemicals.

c. It uses guinea pig to assess teratogenicity of chemicals.

d. It uses albino rats to assess hepatotoxicity of chemicals

13 / 60

13. Agar is______

HPSSC Pharmacist(12.12.2020), HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Heteropolysaccharide

b. Oligopolysaccharide

c. Pentapolysaccharide

d. Homopolysaccharide

14 / 60

14. The composition of Froehde's reagent is_____

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual(04.08.2022)

a. Ammonium molybdate + Sulphuric acid

b. Ferric chloride + sulphuric acid

c. Bismusth iodide + sulphuric acid

d. Postassium iodide + sulphuric acid

15 / 60

15. The best quality of the Lemon oil is obtained by using‐

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. Hand press method

b. Hydrodistillation method

c. Enfleurage method

d. Extraction method

16 / 60

16. Bassorin is chemical constituent obtained from:

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Tragacanth

b. Lanolin

c. Guar

d. Olive oil

17 / 60

17. Identify the correct biological source of Vinca.

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a. Catharanthus roseus

b. Catharanthus officinale

c. Terminalia officinalis

d. Cephalis roseus

18 / 60

18. Adhatoda vasica is under the chemical class of which alkaloids:

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual(04.08.2022)

a. Quinoline

b. Isoquinol ine

c. Indole

d. Quinazoline

19 / 60

19. Which of the following media is used for sterility test

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. fluid thioglycollate medium

b. Nutrient medium

c. MacConkey's medium

d. Ashby's agar medium

20 / 60

20. Penicillin-G is:

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. pHenoxymethylpenicillin

b. benzylpenicillin

c. carboxypenicillin

d. aminopenicillin

21 / 60

21. Which of the following substances is classified as deliriant poison?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Loganin

b. Hyoscyamine

c. Caffeine

d. Nicotine

22 / 60

22. Which of the following plant is source of anticancer drug vinblastin?

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual(04.08.2022)

a. Cinchona officinal is

b. Madagascar Periwinkle

c. Emblica officinal is

d. Rauwolfia

23 / 60

23. Type of alkaloids present in Colchicum:

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. Quinoline alkaloids

b. Tropane alkaloids

c. Steroidal glycoalkaloids

d. Amino alkaloids

24 / 60

24. In providing health benefits _____ is preferred most.

UP NHM Pharmacist (28.12.2022)

a. Oolong

b. White tea

c. Black tea

d. Green tea

25 / 60

25. ______is a cardiac glycoside containing crude belonging to the apocynaceae family. Or Which of the following is a glycoside drug?

DSSSB Pharmacist (01.11.2019), AMC Pharmacist (05.11.2023)

a. Convallaria

b. Digitalis

c. Strophanthus

d. Adonis

26 / 60

26. Which of the following can used as anti-dysenteric?

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a. Catechu

b. Arjuna

c. Digitalis

d. Vinca

27 / 60

27. Morphine posses main nucleus:

Lucknow Cantonment Board Pharmacist (05.02.2023)

a. Anthracene

b. Naphthalene

c. Phenanthrene

d. Picene

28 / 60

28. _____ drug is used as CNS stimulant.

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Hyoscyamus

b. Myrrh

c. Nux vomica

d. Vasaka

29 / 60

29. Dioscin, a steroidal saponin glycoside of Dioscorea tubers after hydrolysis gives‐

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. Diosgenin + 3 Glucose

b. Diosgenin + 3 Rhamnose

c. Diosgenin + 1 Glucose + 2 Rhamnose

d. Diosgenin + 2 Glucose + 1 Rhamnose

30 / 60

30. In second year of cultivation Digitalis purpurea bear _____ type of leaves.

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Rosette

b. Whorled

c. Sessile

d. Alternate

31 / 60

31. The term' Pharmacognosy' was first introduced by:

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual (04.08.2022), AMC Pharmacist (05.11.2023)

a. Schmidt

b. Pelletier

c. Sertuener

d. Seydler

32 / 60

32. Which of the following alkaloids shows blue fluorescence?

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Vinca

b. Cinchona

c. Ergot

d. Rauwolfia

33 / 60

33. Which alkaloid belong to phenanthrene group:

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. Thebaine

b. Noscapine

c. Narceine

d. Papaverine

34 / 60

34. Colour of digitalis leaves is_____

HPSSC Pharmacist(12.12.2020) & (22.08.2022)

a. Dark grayish green

b. Dark purple green

c. Dark reddish green

d. Dark green

35 / 60

35. The growth of a plant is affected by all the following parameters, EXCEPT:

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. morphology

b. altitude

c. fertiliser

d. rainfall

36 / 60

36. The following chemical constituent is principally present in Asafoetida?

UPSSSC Pharmacist (26.03.2023)

a. Boswellic acid

b. Ferulic acid

c. Styrene

d. Capsaicine

37 / 60

37. The red pepper containing flavonoid is:

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. lutein

b. luteolin

c. lycopene

d. lerulic acid

38 / 60

38. _______ are chemical substances produced by microorganisms.

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Antihypertensive drugs

b. Antihistaminic agents

c. Antibiotics

d. Local anaesthetics

39 / 60

39. Which of the following contains pith in rhizomes, but NOT on root?

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Panax ginseng

b. Glycyrrhiza glabra

c. Centella asiatica

d. Quillaia saponaria

40 / 60

40. A. Rutin is a Bioflavonoid.

B. Rutin is a flavonol glycosides

C. Rutin is used in Capillary bleeding

D. Rutin is used as Vitamin P

Which of the above are true for Rutin?

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. A, B and C only

b. A and B only

c. All of these

d. A, B and D only

41 / 60

41. Socotrine aloes are cultivated from species ___.

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Aloe barbadensis

b. Aloe perryi

c. Aloe spicata

d. Aloe ferox

42 / 60

42. Choose the correct action of morphine :

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. Stimulate the release of catecholamines.

b. Decrease the release of Acetylcholine.

c. Potentiates the actions of 5-hydroxy tryptamine.

d. Suppresses vomiting.

43 / 60

43. Tropane nucleus is combination of:

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. Pyrolidine & pyridine

b. Pyrolidine & oscine

c. Piperidine & oscine

d. Pyrolidine & piperidine

44 / 60

44. Which of the following is used in the treatment of malaria?

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Cumin

b. Fennel

c. Cinchona

d. Digitalis

45 / 60

45. Ispaghula and sterculia prescribed in treatment of constipation act as:

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual(04.08.2022)

a. Stimulant laxatives

b. All of these

c. Bulk-forming laxatives

d. Stool softeners

46 / 60

46. Tunica adventitia is:

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. an inner layer of endothelium in an artery

b. a middle layer of smooth muscle and elastic tissue in an artery

c. an inner lining of squamous epithelium in an artery

d. an outer layer of fibrous tissue in an artery

47 / 60

47. Rancidity in the fixed oils generally show ‐

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. Higher Peroxide value as compared to the standards

b. Higher Iodine value as compared to the standards

c. Higher level of Unsaponifiable matter

d. Higher Acid value as compared to the standards

48 / 60

48. Diacetylmorphine is also known as_______

MP NHM Pharmacist-Contractual(04.08.2022)

a. Heroin

b. Cocaine

c. Charas

d. Ganja

49 / 60

49. Anthranilic acid is an immediate precursor in the formation of:

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. Methidine

b. Tyrosine

c. Ornithine

d. Tryptophan

50 / 60

50. Which of the following statements is true regarding amino glycoside antibiotics?

MPSC Pharmacist (08.02.2023)

a. Anaerobic bacteria are more sensitive to amino glycoside antibiotics.

b. Amino glycoside antibiotics are bacteriostatic in nature.

c. Amino glycoside antibiotics interfere with cell division of bacteria.

d. Amino glycoside antibiotics are more active in alkaline medium.

51 / 60

51. One of the following is an example of chemical method of evaluation:

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. Determination of refractive index

b. Detection of alkaloids

c. Determination of vascular bundles

d. Determination of volatile oil

52 / 60

52. Time required to kill a specific microorganism at a given temperature under specific condition is called as:

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Inactivation factor

b. Thermal death time

c. Z value

d. D value

53 / 60

53. The chemical constituent of lemon oil is:

HPSSC Pharmacist(14.05.2022)

a. Geraniol

b. Limonene

c. Carvacrol

d. Menthol

54 / 60

54. cod liver oil is ______ Biological source of:

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Hypoprion brevirostris

b. Gadus morhua

c. plantago ovata

d. Sacccharomyces cerevisiae

55 / 60

55. The natural alkaloid used in the treatment of gout is: Or Which of the following is a seed drug?

ESIC Pharmacist (26.02.2019, Shift-II), AMC Pharmacist (05.11.2023)

a. Emetine

b. Reserpine

c. Cinchnine

d. Colchicine

56 / 60

56. Thick extracts of drugs prepared by boiling decoction of drug with sugar/honey is _____ ayurvedic dosage form.

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Avleha

b. Asavas

c. Sattava

d. Netrabindu

57 / 60

57. HPTLC analysis is useful for following types of analysis of herbal drugs
A. Quantitative estimation of marker compound
B. Authentication of extracts
C. Detection of pesticides
D. Standardization of herbal drugs
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

GPAT(09.04.2022)

a. A, B, C and D

b. A, B and D only

c. A and D only

d. D only

58 / 60

58. What is caused by an overdose of morphine?

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. myocardial damage

b. vestibular damage

c. renal failure

d. respiratory failure

59 / 60

59. Which is an example of absorption base?

HPSSC Pharmacist(22.08.2022)

a. Coconut oil

b. Wool fat

c. Macrogol

d. PEG

60 / 60

60. __________ is the powder of the endosperm of the seed of Cyamopsis tetragonolobus.

UP NHM Pharmacist (29.12.2022)

a. Acacia Senegal

b. Sterculic gum

c. Guar Gum

d. Gelatine

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